INSTRUCTIONS:
Professional Examination for Midwives
March, 2019 PAPER I|
SECTION B: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (40%) Answer ALL questions
The following are Objeçtive Test.
Circle the appropriate uption witlh BIRO. Each question counts for ONE (I) mark.
- The blood supply to the vulva is from the (a) Internal iliac artery
(b) Renal artery
(C) Internal and cxiernal pudendal arteriçs
(d) (Ovárlan artery - The bony prominence felt in Iron of the iliac crest is called the (a) lilac l’ossa
(b) Iliac spine (c) lliac angle
(d) lliac depression - The developmental abnormality ol’ the pelvic bond in which one ‘sacral ala is
nissis, is called
(aJ Nacgcle’ s pelvis
(b) Robert’s pelvis (c) Scoliosis
(d) Kyphosis - The false pelvis is bounded posteriorly by the (a) Iliac fossau (b)-4bdominal wall (e) Obturator foramén (d), T.umbar vertebrae.
- The anatomical conjugate measures about (a) 10cm (b) 11 cm (c) 12cm (d) 13cm
- The following can result in developmental abnormality of the pelvis EXCEPT: (a) Fetal compromise (b) Injury to the pelvis (c) Dietary deficiencies (d) Disease conditions
- The average blood loss during normal menstrual cycle is estimated between: (a) 20—50ml (b) 30—100ml (c) 50—150 ml (d) 70— 150 ml
- Which of the following types of pelvis is kidney-shaped: (a) Android pelvis (b) Platypelloid pelvis (c) Arthropoid pelvis (d) Gynaccoid pelvis
- The cleft between the labia minora is known as: (a) Clitoris (b) Vestibule (c) Hymen (d) Fornix
- Changes in the Menstrual cycle are initiated by: (a) Oestrogen (b) Follicle-stimulating hormone (c) Luteinizing hormone (d) Progesterone
- The matured female breast consists of how many lobes: (a) 18—20 (b) 20—25 (c) 25—30 (d) 30—35
- The female breast is said to have completed its development at: (a) Puberty (b) Menopause (c) Pregnancy (d) Lactation
- At what week of pregnancy can the colostrum be expressed from the breast: (a) 12 weeks (b) 16 weeks (c) 18 weeks (d) 20 weeks.
- The life span of spermatozoon is: (a) 12 hours (b) 36 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours.
- The main function of spermatic cord is to: (a) Produce spermatozoa (b) Suspend the testes in the scrotum (c) Transport spermatozoa (d) Store spermatozoa
- The amount of spermatozoa contained in normal ejaculated semen per ml is about: (a) 20—30 million (b) 30—40 million (c) 40—50 million (d) 50—60 million
- Successful Spermatogenesis takes place at the temperature of about: (a) 3 degree Celsius below normal body temperature (b) 3 degree Celsius above normal body temperature (c) Normal body temperature (d) 6 degree Celsius below body temperature
- The average length of the male urethra is: (a) 10 – 15 cm (b) 12 – 17 cm (c) 16 – 18 cm (d) 19 – 20 cm
- How many days will it take a spermatozoon to mature fully: (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 14
- Which of the following enzymes is released by the spermatozoon to allow penetration of the zona pellucida of the ovum for fertilization: (a) Amylase (b) Renin (c) Hyaluronidase (d) Acinotine
- After 8 weeks of conception, the developing offspring is known as: (a) Morula (b) Blastocyst (c) Foetus (d) Embryo
- The fontanelle recognizable for vaginal examination as triangular shaped is known as: (a) Anterior fontanelle (b) Posterior fontanelle (c) Latent fontanelle (d) Triangular fontanelle
- The first system to function in the embryo is the: (a) Cardiovascular system (b) Endocrine system (c) Respiratory system (d) Digestive system
- The foetal kidney becomes more functional at: (a) 10 weeks (b) 12 weeks (c) 14 weeks (d) 16 weeks
- The single umbilical artery at birth suggests malformation of the: (a) Heart (b) Lungs (c) Renal tract (d) Nervous system
- Bicornuate uterus is due to: (a) Incomplete fusion of the ovum (b) Complete fusion of the ovum (c) Multiple fusion of the ovum (d) Effect of failed intrauterine contraceptive device.
- Retroverted uterus should be suspected if a pregnant woman complains of low back pain: (a) Early weeks of pregnancy (b) Middle weeks of pregnancy (c) Late weeks of pregnancy (d) Post term pregnancy
- Incarceration of the gravid uterus occurs mostly between how many weeks of gestation: (a) 12th and 13th week (b) 12th and 14th week (c) 12th and 15th week (d) 12th and 16th week
- The major effect of the anterior obliquity of the gravid uterus is: (a) Malposition (b) Malpresentation (c) Obstructed labor (d) Delayed second stage of labor
- Fibroid confined to the myometrium is known as: (a) Intramural (b) Pedunuclated (c) Subserous (d) Submocous
- Presence of fibroid in the uterus during puerperium may lead to: (a) Prolong red lochia (b) Brown lochia (c) Pinkish lochia (d) Short gushing lochia
- Which of the following types of pelvis has all its diameters reduced: (a) Android pelvis (b) Anthropoid pelvis (c) Justominor pelvis (d) Platypelloid pelvis
- In trial of labor, fontal examination should be monitored every: (a) 5 minutes (b) 10 minutes (c) 15 minutes (d) 20 minutes
- The following are conditions that can cause vomiting in pregnancy EXCEPT: (a) Oligohydramnios (b) Acute polyhydramnios (c) Gastroenteritis (d) Appendicitis
- Pregnancy Induced Hypertension mostly occurs after: (a) 10th week of pregnancy (b) 16th week of pregnancy (c) 20th week of pregnancy (d) 28th week of pregnancy
- The major clinical manifestation of anaemia in pregnancy is: (a) Weakness (b) Tiredness (c) Marked dizziness (d) Marked dyspnoea.
- The following are classification of malaria EXCEPT: (a) Acute and chronic (b) Uncomplicated and Complicated (c) Acute and uncomplicated (d) Chronic and uncomplicated
- The major classification of malaria in early pregnancy is: (a) Preterm delivery (b) Neonatal mortality (c) Placental insufficiency (d) Spontaneous abortion
- A reflex hammer is used to check: (a) Fractured spine (b) Superficial tendon reflexes (c) Deep tendon reflexes (d) Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
- Classification of eclampsia depends on the degrees of: (a) Oedema and hypertension (b) Proteinuria and hypertensive (c) Oedema and proteinuria (d) Proteinuria and fits
- Complication of polyhydraminos include: (a) Obstructed labor (b) Prolonged labor (c) Premature rupture of membranes (d) Large baby
- The amount of amniotic fluid at term in oligopolydraminos is between: (a) 100-200 ml (b) 200-400ml (c) 300- 500ml (d) 600- 700ml
- The following are indications for the use of manual vacuum aspiration EXCEPT: (a) Inevitable abortion (b) Incomplete abortion above 14 weeks (c) Missed abortion (d) Incomplete abortion
- The Midwife should suspect diabetes in a pregnant woman with history of: (a) Recurrent oligohydraminos (b) Delivery of babies weighing 3.5-3.6kg respectively (c) Repeated abortion, still birth, and early neonatal death (d) Increased weight gain despite reduction in carbohydrates intake.
- Which of the following conditions complicates heart disease and results to cardiac failure: (a) Endocarditis (b) Pre-Eclampsia (c) Anaemia (d) Pulmonary Oedema
- Ruptured uterus is very rare in which of the following group of woman: (a) Multiparous (b) Grand multiparous (c) Primigravida (d) Previous Caesarean section
- The following are causes of ruptured uterus EXCEPT: (a)Previous trauma (b) Obstructed labor (c)Abuse of oxytocin drugs (d) Breech delivery
- Incorrect attachment of the baby to the breast during breastfeeding may cause: (a) Breast abscess (b) Cracked nipple (c) Mastitis (d) Nipple pain
- Wedge-shaped area, redness, and swelling on breast during ovary pueripurim is an indication of (a) Abscess (b) Infection (c) Engorgement (d) Mastitis
- Which of the following conditions is cause of Primary Postpartum Hemorrhage: (a) Subinvolution (b) Infection (c) Nulliparity (d) Blood coagulation disorders
- Fundus fiddling during the third stage of labor may result to: (a) Couvelaire uterus (b) Arrhythmic contractions (c) Cervical tear (d) Sub involution.
- A condition occurring between 3rd to 4th day of postpartum characterized by intense mood changes is called: (a) Postnatal mood swing (b) Postnatal psychosis (c) Postnatal blues (d) Postnatal distress.
- Postnatal condition in which there’s sleeplessness, loss of appetite, extreme tiredness, impaired mental function and concentration is known as: (a) Somatic syndrome (b) Depressive syndrome (c) Psychotic syndrome (d) Postpartum disorder.
- The following arc contraindications for vacuum extraction EXCEPT: (a) Cuput formation (b)Foetal skull moulding of 24 or more (c) Gestational age more than 37weeks (d) Gestational age less than 37 weeks
- Which of the following may be done for a pregnant woman who has had a caesarian section previously and intends to have a vaginal delivery: (a) Induction of labor (b) Trial of labor (c) Vacuusn extraction (d) Forceps delivery
- Which of the following is a destructive delivery? (a) Symphysiotomy (b) Celiotomy (c) Epilcctomy (d) UterolÖmy.
- The type of destructive delivery in which the abdominal and thoracic contents of the foetus are removed is known as: (a) Evisceration (b) Craniotomy (c) Symphysiotomy (d) Hysterectomy
- A condition in which the amniotic fluid enter the maternal blood is known as:
(a) Mendelson’s syndroms (b) Shcchan’s syndrome (c) Amniotic fluid syndrome
(d) Amnioticfluidembolisn - Iniervention to corrcct slow progress of labour is called: (a) Induction of labour (b) Augmentation of labour
(c) Assisted labour (d) Caesarian section - Intervention to initiate labour is called (a) Induction of labor (b}Augumentation of labour (c) Assisted labour (d) Cacsarian section
- The mcthod of assessing the cervix before induction of Labour is called: (a) Apgarscore (b) Obstctric score (c) Bishop’s score (d) Hedger’s score
- Series of movement in mechanism of labour include: (a) Flexion,rotation, crowning and extension (b)Flexion, restitution,attitude and denomination (c)Crowning, restitution, attitude, and denomination (d) Crowning, flexion, extension, rotation and restitution
- When the anterior fontanelle- is felt on vaginal examination, it is an indication that the position is: (a) Occipito-posterior (b) Occipito-anterior (c) Occipito-lateral (d) Occipito-frontal
- Which of the following is a major complication associated with multiple pregnancies: (a) Oligohygramineous (b)Cord presentation (c) precipitate labor (d) Conjoined twins
- The major causes of postnatal depression are (a) Over-pampered childhood (b) High-level stress combined with low-level support (c) High-level support during pregnancy combined with low-level support (d) Multiple pregnancy
- The primary cause of enuresis in a child is (a) Delayed maturation (b) Urinary tract infection (c) Psychological stress (d) Nightmares
- The prevalence of enuresis is higher in boys than girls by ratio (a) 2: 1 (b) 3:1 (c) 4:2 (d) 5:2
- Dry bed training in the management of enuresis involves (a) a Change in parenting attitude (b) positive reinforcement (c) Treating the underlying infection (d) Severe punishment
- Thc best way to manage enuresis in a child is (a)Bchavioural modilication (b) Change in parental attitude (c) Use of anticholinergic agent (d) Give less Fluid to the child
- At 2 years the child’s brain is expected to be about what percentage of an adult’s, brain? (a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 70% (d) 80%
- The following are basic needs of a 2 months old child EXCEPT (a) Nutritionl needs (b)Aesthetic needs (c) Psychological needs(d) Safety needs
- The following are causes of pneumonia in children EXCEPT for (a) Individual variation (b) The stage of lactation (c) The length of time the breastmilk was stored (d) The time of day
- The following are causes of pneumonia in children EXCEPT (a) Staphylococcal (b) Streptococcal (c) lostridium tetany (d) Rotavirus
- Which of the following is not a behavioral problem in child?
(a) Hand banging (b) Excessive sleeping (c) Gluttony (d) Attention seeking - Glucose in Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS) plays an essential role in (a) the Assimilation of odium and water (b) the Absorption of sulfate and water (c) the Absorption of sodium and water (d) Assimilation of sulfate and water
- The harsh noise heard when a sick child with respiration condition breathes is called: (a) Grunting (b) Noisy (c) Stridor (d) Coarse
- In stages of growth and development, a toddler is grouped from (a) 6 months to I year (b) 1 to 2 years (c) 1 to 3 years (d) 2 to 4 years
- The infant’s basal calorie requirement per kg body weight ranges from (a) 100- 105 kcal (b) 100- 15 kcal (c)110- 120 kcal (d) 120 -130kcal
- Bulging of the fontanelle is an indication that the child may develop (a)Tetanus (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Meningitis (d)Measles
- Transient fear is common among children of age group (a) 2-3 years (b) 2-4 years (c) 2-5 years (d) 2- 6 years
- Trimus is a major clinical manifestation of (a)Neonatal jaundice (b) Neonatal tetanus (c) Neonatal sepsis (d) Neonatal infection
- The type of amino acids needed for the growth and development of a child is (a)-Calcium (b) Histamine (c) Magnesium (d) Protein
- The first molar tçcth of. a child ‘erupts at age (a) 6-22 months (b) 8 -20 months (c) 13-20months (d) 14-18months
- Which of the following is associated with spoiled child syndrome (a) Low intelligence quotient (b) Failure to gain weight (c) Dependency (d) Obesity
- Power or right to direct /s known as (a) Delegation (b) authority (c) Command (d) Responsibility
- Obligation to attain an object or perform certain functions is known as (a) Command (b) Authority (c) Responsibility (d) Delegation
- Strategic planning means (a) Day-to-day planning of the organization (b) Short-term planning from 6 months -to 1ycar, (c) Long-range planning by an organization for 3 – 5 years (d), specific goals be achieved by an organization within a short period
- The process of planning and controlling full operations by comparing actual results to positive expectations is called (a) Expectation (b) Evaluation (c) Budgeting (d) Managing
- The following are predisposing factors to breast cancer EXCEPT: (a) breast engorgement (b) Parity (c) Heredity (d) Age
- Which of the following is a preventive measure for breast cancer EXCEPT (a) Increased intake of fat (b) Avoid breastfeeding
(c) Change of lifestyle (d) Avoid carbohydrate intake - For diagnostic purposes, the World Health Organization (WHO) classified signs and symptoms of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) into
(a) Minor and Major (b) Adult and juvenile (c) Criteria and clinic
(d) Acute and chronic - Human Immunodeficiency Virus affects
(a) Blymphôcytes
(b) Clymphocytes
(c) Glymphocytes (d) T lymphocytes - The best way of treating sèxually transmitted infection in the community is by (a) a Syndromic approach (b) a Laboratory test approach (c) a Standing order approach (d) a Standing order chart