1. One of the following is a normal female pelvis (a) Android
   (b) Gynaecoid
   (c) Anthropoid (d) Platypelloid
2. Pelvic cavity measures ………………………… centimeters all round (a) 13 cm
   (b) 12 cm
   (c) 11 cm
   (d) 10 cm
3. The sacrum is formed by the fusion of ………………… sacral vertebrae (a) 4
   (b) 2
   (c) 5
   (d) 3
4. The pelvis articulates with the………………………. Lumber vertebrae (a) 3rd
   (b) 4th
   (c) 5th
   (d) 2nd
5. The ……………………….. is the concave anterior surface of the sacrum (a) Atlas
   (b) Promontory
   (c) Sacral canal
   (d) Hollow of the sacrum
6. The smallest of the three components of the innominate bone that forms the lowest one-fifth of the acetabulum is……………?
   (a) Ilium (b) Ischuim (c) Coccyx (d) Pubis
7. The pelvic joints include all except (a) Sacro iliac
   (b) Sacrotuberous
   (c) Symphysis pubis (d) Sacrococcygeal

8.
9.
10.
The measurement taken between the promontory of the sacrum and either iliopectineal eminence is known as………………..?
(a) Anterior posterior diameter
(b) Sacrocotyloid diameter
(c) Transverse diameter
(d) Oblique diameter
The distance between the promontory of the sacrum and the inner upper border of the symphysis pubis is known as…………………?
(a) Anterior posterior diameter
(b) Obligue diameter
(c) Transverse diameter
(d) Sacrocotyloid diameter
The sacrocotyloid diameter should be at least …………………centimeters
(a) 9.5 cm
(b) 10 cm (c) 7.5 cm (d) 11 cm
One of these pelvis type favours the unreduced occipito posterior position (a) Gynaecoid
(b) Android
(c) Platypelloid
(d) Anthropoid
The narrowest portion of the fallopian tube is……………………….? (a) Interstitial portion
(b) Infundibulum
(c) Isthmus
(d) Ampulla
Fertilization normally occurs at …………… part of the uterine tubes
(a) Ampulla
(b) Isthmus
(c) Infundibulum
(d) Interstitial portion
The female urethra is……………. Centimeter (a) 10 cm
11.
12.
13.
14.

(b) 5 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 4 cm
The fertilized ovum within the first eight weeks is……………………..? (a) Embryo
(b) Zygote
(c) Fetus
(d) Morula
The shortest period in prenatal development is……………….?
(a) Germinal stage
(b) Embryonic stage (c) Fetal stage
(d) Infancy
The embryonic disc is formed at ……………………. Stage of prenatal development (a) Germinal
(b) Embryonic
(c) Fetal
(d) Infancy
The ectoderm forms the following EXCEPT
(a) Skin, nail
(b) Brain, spinal cord
(c) Dermis, sense organs
(d) Circulatory and reproductive systems
The life span of the ovum after release from the ovary is … (a) 12 hours
(b) 72 hours
(c) 24 – 48 hours
(d) 24 hours

20. The entry point for the renal vein , renal artery, lymphatic and nerves into the kidneys is called…?
    (a) Pyramid (b) Column (c) Capsule (d) Hilum
21. The inner wall of the urinary bladder and ureters are lined by….? (a) Stratified epithelium
    (b) Transitional epithelium
    15.
    16.
    17.
    18.
    19.

(c) Cuboidal epithelium (d) Squamous epithelium

22. The structure that interfaces between the foetus and the mother is the…………….? (a) Placenta
    (b) Umbilical cord
    (c) Chorion and amnion
    (d) Blastocyst
    The following are equipments for antenatal assessment EXCEPT
    (a) Patella hammer
    (b) Thermometer
    (c) Pinard’s stethoscope (d) Centimeter tape
    The wall of the vagina is thrown into folds known as …………………..?
    (a) Rugae
    (b) Arbo vitae
    (c) Racemorse gland
    (d) Transitional epithelium
    In utero, unovular twins shares the same placenta, chorion and…..
    (a) Amnion
    (b) Not identical
    (c) Umbilical cord
    (d) Separated from each other
    A pyramid of fibrous tissue situated between the vagina and the rectum is known as
    the…………….?
    (a) Transverse pevineal muscle (b) Pubo-coccygeal muscle
    (c) Perineal body
    (d) Ishial tuberosity
    Occasionally, ovulation is accompanied by mid cycle pain called (a) Congestive dysmenorrhoea
    (b) Spasmodic dysmenorrhea
    (c) Mittelschmerz
    (d) Ischaemic pain
    The use of cervical mucus to predict ovulation is known as …………………….? (a) Lactational amenorrhea
    (b) Basal body temperature
    (c) Symptho – thermal method
    23.
    24.
    25.
    26.
    27.
    28.

29.
30.
The stretchy characteristic of cervical mucus during ovulation is called ……….? (a) Early pap
(b) Late pap
(c) Leucorrhea
(d) Spinnbarkeit
One of these hormone is responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristic
in males
(a) Progesterone (b) Oestrogen (c) Testrosterone (d) Androgen
The following are female internal organs EXCEPT (a) Fallopian tubes
(b) Ovaries
(c) Vulva
(d) Uterus
The corpus luteum produces ………… and …….. hormones (a) Relaxin and Prolactin
(b) Oestrogen and Progesterone
(c) Oxytocin and Vasopressin
(d) Prolactin and progesterone
Sexual stimulation of ………… causes the penis to become engorged and erect (a) Sympathetic nerves
(b) Lumbar plexus
(c) Cervical plexus
(d) Parasympathetic nerves
The glans penis is covered by a moveable hood called (a) Corpus spongiosum
(b) Gland
(c) Shaft
(d) Fore skin
A large distensible tube that leads down and back to the uterus cervix is called …………. ? (a) Bladder
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
(d) Billings ovulation method

36.
37.
(b) Rectus (c) Uterus (d) Vagina
Which of these is a non-reproductive function of the penis
(a) To expel urine
(b) To expel sperm
(c) To penetrate the vagina
(d) For wearing of male condom in faculty planning
The female external genitalia include all EXCEPT (a) Mon pubis
(b) Labia majora and minora
(c) Cervix
(d) Vaginal orifice

38. In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerated and become ……….? (a) Corpus carvenosum
    (b) Corpus spongiosum
    (c) Corpus venosum
    (d) Corpus albican
39. The average blood loss during menstruation is ……………….
    (a) 50 – 150 mls
    (b) 150 – 200 mls (c) 200 – 300 mls (d) 500 mls
40. The menstrual blood does not clot due to the presence of an enzyme known as ……… (a) Pepsin
    (b) Plasmin
    (c) Trypsin
    (d) Gastrin
41. The term menorrhagia means ………………….? (a) Absence of menses
    (b) Scanty menses
    (c) Inter-menstrual bleeding
    (d) Heavy bleeding
42. In narcotic over dose ……….. drug is given
    (a) Naloxone
    (b) 50% dextrose

(c) Normal saline
(d) Calcium gluconate

43. The drug recommended for magnesium sulphate loxicity is ………………? (a) Charcoal
    (b) Naloxone
    (c) Calcium gluconate
    (d) Norma saline
44. Prenatal folic acid is to prevent …………………? (a) Preeclampsia
    (b) Neural tube defects
    (c) Abortion/miscarriage
    (d) Macrosomia
45. The functional health patterns used in assessment of client for care was propounded by
    ….?
    (a) Sigmund Freud
    (b) Dorathea Orem
    (c) Florence Nightingale
    (d) Gordon Marjory
46. The initial assess in antenatal care is known as …………….? (a) Routine visit
    (b) Booking
    (c) Prenatal check-up
    (d) Appointment visit
47. The ovarian cycle consists of ……………… phases (a) 2
    (b) 3
    (c) 4
    (d) 5
48. The ceasation of cyclic ovarian events is referred to as …………………? (a) Andropause
    (b) Menopause
    (c) Amenorrhoea
    (d) Dysmenorrhea
49. The endometrium during pregnancy is known as ………………? (a) Basalis
    (b) Capsularis

(c) Decidua
(d) Choronic villi

50. The part of the trophoblastic layer which forms the placenta is ……………….?
    (a) Chorion frondosum
    (b) Decidua basalis
    (c) Decidua capsularis
    (d) The layer of Nitabusch
51. A collagenous layer between the endometrium and myometrium which prevent further invasion of the placenta than the decidua is …………………?
    (a) Syncytiotrophoblast
    (b) Cytotrophoblast
    (c) Layer of nitabusch (d) Decidua capsularis
52. The diameter of a termed placenta is ……………….. (a) 10 cm
    (b) 20 cm
    (c) 30 cm
    (d) 5 cm
53. The placenta at term weighs approximately …………….? (a) 300g
    (b) 100g
    (c) 470g
    (d) 600mg
54. The maternal surface of the placenta is arranged in up to ………………. Cotyledons
    (a) 40
    (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 50
55. The peak level of human chorionic gonadotrophin is between ………. and ……………
    (a) 7th – 10th week
    (b) 12th – 20th week (c) 24th – 26th week (d) 30th – 32nd week
56. Amniotic fluid consist of ………………. Percent of water and dissolved matters (a) 60% and 40%
    (b) 50% and 50%
    (c) 90% and 10%
    (d) 99% and 1%
57. The involuntary urge to push during the second stage of labour is known as ……..? (a) Mackindrot reflex
    (b) Ferguson’s reflex
    (c) MacBarnes reflex
    (d) Barbinskin reflex
58. The female breasts are situated on ……..? (a) Posterior chest wall
    (b) Anterior chest wall
    (c) Epigastric region
    (d) Hypochondriac region
59. One of these contain the milk – secreting cells in female breast (a) Lactiferous duct
    (b) Ampulla
    (c) Areolar
    (d) Alveoli
60. The nature’s perfect food for the newborn is? (a) Cow formula
    (b) Goat formula
    (c) Water
    (d) Breast milk
61. The blood vessels of the umbilical and cord are enclosed and protected by ………..? (a) Chorion
    (b) Vernix
    (c) Wharton jelly
    (d) Decidua
62. At term the volume of amniotic fluid is approximately (a) 250mls

(b) 500mls
(c) 1000mls (d) 1200mls

63. The fetal haemoglobin at term is in ……………. concentration
    (a) 17 – 20g/dl
    (b) 10 – 12g/dl
    (c) 30 – 40 g/dl
    (d) 50g/dl
64. The fetal skull has …………….. main sutures (a) 2
    (b) 4
    (c) 5 (d) 3
65. The suture that separates the frontal bones from the parietal bones is ………
    (a) Coronal
    (b) Lamoloidal (c) Sagittal
    (d) Frontal
66. The sutures that lies between the two parietal bones is …….?
    (a) Sagittal
    (b) Frontal
    (c) Coronal
    (d) Lambdoidal
67. The fetal skull is divided into the following EXCEPT (a) Vault
    (b) Sutures and fontanelles
    (c) Base
    (d) Face
68. The face of the skull is composed of ……. Small bones united and non-compressible (a) 6 bones
    (b) 12 bones
    (c) 10 bones
    (d) 14 bones
69. The anterior fontanelle is broad and kite – shaped measuring ……………. in length (a) 5cm
    (b) 2cm

(c) 3-4cm
(d) 6cm

70. The sub-occipitobregmatic (SOB) diameter is? (a) 10 cm
    (b) 7.5cm
    (c) 9.5cm
    (d) 12cm
71. Occipito frontal diameter of the fetal skull is …………….. (a) 11.5cm
    (b) 10cm
    (c) 13.5cm
    (d) 9.5cm
72. Measurement of the fetal skull from the point of the chin to the highest point on the vertex is known as ………………..
    (a) Sub mento vertical diameter
    (b) Mentovertical diameter
    (c) Occipitofrontal diameter
    (d) Sub – mentobregmatic diameter
73. The submentobregmatic diameter of the fetal skull is …………… centimeter (a) 10.5cm
    (b) 11.5cm
    (c) 9.5cm
    (d) 13.5cm
74. Mento – vertical diameter of the fetal skull is ……………. (a) 12 cm
    (b) 13.5cm
    (c) 10.5cm
    (d) 11.5cm
75. The weight of the Uterus at term is ………….. (a) 44-50g
    (b) 800g
    (c) 1000 – 1100g
    (d) 60g
76. The gatekeeper of pregnancy is (a) Uterus
    (b) Vagina
    (c) Fallopian tube

(d) Cervix

77. Descent of the fetal head into the pelvic brain is ……………… (a) Ripening of the cervix
    (b) Enfacement of the cervix
    (c) Spurions labor
    (d) Engagement
78. The endocervical mucosal cells produce copious tenacious mucus with antibacterial plug into the cervix known as ………
    (a) Leucorrhea
    (b) Spinnbarkeit
    (c) Operculum
    (d) Vaginal discharge
79. The dorminant vaginal flora is the ……… (a) Tubercul bacillus
    (b) Dodorleins bacillus
    (c) Canadida albican
    (d) Chlamydia
80. Vaginal acidity of pregnancy (PH) vary from ……
    (a) 3.5 – 6
    (b) 1 – 2 (c) 2 – 3 (d) 7 – 8
81. The p bluish – purple coloration of the cervix during pregnancy is known as (a) Gaddel’s sign
    (b) Goodell’s sign
    (c) Hagar’s sign
    (d) Osianders sign
82. Utero-placental blood volume increases by ……… (a) 50%
    (b) 10 – 20 %
    (c) 5%
    (d) 10%
83. Pulsation of the lateral vaginal fornix due to increased blood supply is known as ………
    (a) Osiandar’s signs
    (b) Hegar’s sign (c) Goodell’s sign

(d) Chadwick’s sign

84. The care given to pregnancy mother from confirmation of pregnancy till onset of labour is called …………?
    (a) Pre conception care
    (b) Pregnancy care
    (c) Prenatal care (d) Maternal care
85. Which of the following statements best describe fore waters?
    (a) Amniotic fluid that escapes in front of the presenting part
    (b) The fluid that lies behind the presenting part (c) Fluid that lies besides the presenting part (d) Fluid that escapes into the vagina
86. Active please of labor begins at?
    (a) 4 – 5cm
    (b) 1 – 2cm (c) 2cm
    (d) 6cm
87. The cervix is expected to dilate ………… centimeter hourly (a) 2cm
    (b) 0.5cm
    (c) 1cm
    (d) 2.5cm
88. A graphic tool that is used to monitor progress of labor is (a) ECG machine
    (b) Pinard stethoscope
    (c) Ultra sound scan
    (d) Partograph
89. Vaginal examination is performed under aseptic technique every ……… hours (a) 2 hours
    (b) 4hous
    (c) Hourly
    (d) 3 hourly
90. The W.H.O modified partograph is made up of ………………parts

(a) 5 parts
(b) 6 parts
(c) 3 parts
(d) 4 parts

91. Full dilatation of the cervix confirms end of …………………. Stage (a) First state
    (b) Second state
    (c) Third state
    (d) Fourth state
92. During the fourth state, the woman and new born are assessed every ………. Minutes in the first 2 hours
    (a) 30 minutes
    (b) 60 minutes
    (c) 9 minutes
    (d) 15 minutes
93. Signs of placental descent include all EXCEPT
    (a) Full bladder with trickling urine
    (b) Uterus becomes hard, round and mobile
    (c) Lengthening of the cord
    (d) Gush of blood
94. The pressure of uterine contraction exerted on the amniotic fluid that equalizes the pressure over the fetal body is called …………………?
    (a) Hind water pressure
    (b) Fluid balance
    (c) General fluid pressure (d) Fore water pressure
95. Pains from uterine contractions and cervical dilatation can be blocked by ……………………..?
    (a) Pudendal block
    (b) Para-cervical block
    (c) General anaesthesia
    (d) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation
96. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation employs the use of electrodes placed over area of the skin knowns as ………………
    (a) Hypodermis
    (b) Dermatodes
    (c) Seat glands

(d) Hair shaft

97. These drugs are associated with depression of the fetal respiratory centre except (a) Morphine
    (b) Perthidine
    (c) Diamorphine
    (d) Bupivacaine
98. Entonoux is a premixed gas containing …………..?
    (a) 50% nitrous oxide and 50% oxygen
    (b) 50% nitrogen and 50% oxygen
    (c) 80% oxygen and 20% nitrous oxide (d) 80% nitrous oxide and 20% oxygen
99. In epidural block, local anaesthetic agent is injected between, ………………. Vertebrae
    (a) Lumber 1 and 2 or L3 and L4
    (b) Lumber 1 and 2 or sacral 1 and 4 (c) Lumber 4 and coccy x 2
    (d) Thoracic 4 and 6
100. The commonest complication of epidural block is …………….? (a) Hypertensive crisis
     (b) Hypotensive crisis
     (c) Abscess formation
     (d) Euphoria
101. Routine drugs for prenatal care include all EXCEPT (a) Calcium lactate
     (b) Folic acid
     (c) Fersolate
     (d) Laridox
102. The human breast milk contain …………. Percent of water (a) 50%
     (b) 80%
     (c) 87.8-90%
     (d) 100%
103. A soft white, chessy yellow cream found on the newborn skin is ………………? (a) Lanugo
     (b) Mongolian spots
     (c) Petechiae
     (d) Vernix caseosa
104. The average weight of a normal newborn ranges from …….. to …….
     (a) 2.5 – 3kg (b) 2.5 – 3.9kg (c) 4 – 4.5kg (d) 2 – 3kg
105. The stomach capacity of the newborn at birth is ……………………? (a) 10mls
     (b) 30mls
     (c) 60mls
     (d) 20mls
106. The caloric value of breast milk is equal to ………………..? (a) 100joules
     (b) 280joules
     (c) 150joules
     (d) 200joules
107. Two types of amino acids in breast milk are ………………….? (a) Leucine & cysteine
     (b) Lysine & Trytophan

(c) Cysteine & taurine (d) Alanine & valine

108. This immune globulin protect the newborn from enterovirus
     (a) 1g M
     (b) 1g E
     (c) 1g A
     (d) 1g G
109. Vitamin C found in breast milk is necessary for….?
     (a) Brain development
     (b) Growth
     (c) Collagen synthesis
     (d) Blood cloting
110. One of these reflexes is elicited when the baby’s under foot is stroked from top of the sole toward the heel.
     (a) Stepping reflex
     (b) Grasping reflex
     (c) Barbinski reflex
     (d) Moro reflex
111. Newborn must be given BCG, OPV0 and Hep B0 vaccines within ………… of delivery
     (a) 2 weeks
     (b) 4 weeks
     (c) 6 weeks
     (d) 12 weeks
112. Which of the following is a differential diagnosis of osiander’s sign
     (a) Uterine myomas
     (b) Ovarian tumour
     (c) Pelvic tumour
     (d) Hormonal imbalance
113. Colostrum can be expressed from the breasts by ………………… weeks of pregnancy
     (a) 12 weeks
     (b) 14 weeks
     (c) 16 weeks
     (d) 24 weeks
114. When the midwife states that the cervix is not well applied to the presenting part, this indicates that the cervix is ………….?
     (a) Thin
     (b) Thick

(c) Loose
(d) Loose and well applied

115. The following precautions are taken when applying controlled cord traction EXCEPT
     (a) Ensure that the bladder is full
     (b) Ensure that counter traction is applied
     (c) Ensure uterus is well contracted
     (d) Ensure uterotonic drug has been given
116. These procedures are mandatory for a woman in labor EXCEPT
     (a) Checking vital signs
     (b) Monitoring fetal condition
     (c) Monitoring maternal condition
     (d) Perineal shaving
117. Which of the following movements occurs after crowning of the fetal head
     (a) Extension of the shoulders
     (b) Extension of the head
     (c) Restitution of the head
     (d) Internal rotation of the shoulder
118. Which of these is used by the midwife in order to establish the real fetal heart rate sound
     (a) Stethoscope
     (b) Pinard stethoscope
     (c) Doppler
     (d) ECG
119. Which of the following drugs is given to new born immediately after birth because of immaturity of the liver
     (a) Vitamin A injection
     (b) Vitamin E injection
     (c) Vitamin K injection
     (d) Vitamin D injection
120. Which of the following is the first function to be established at birth
     (a) Crying
     (b) Sucking
     (c) Breathing
     (d) Movement of the limbs
121. An assessment tool used in assessing new born at birth within the first 5 minutes is ……
     (a) Bishop’s score
     (b) Apgar score
     (c) Resuscitation score

(d) Respiration score

122. A temporary psychological state after child-birth when the mother cries for no apparent reason is called ……………..?
     (a) Crying spell
     (b) Baby blues
     (c) Tears of joy
     (d) Tears of distress
123. The following cases would require referral to hospital in domiciliary midwifery EXCEPT
     (a) Pre term babies
     (b) Post date babies
     (c) Multiple births
     (d) Normal term babies
124. The average occipito Frontal circumference in a term baby is
     (a) 40 – 42cm
     (b) 32 – 36cm
     (c) 50 – 52cm
     (d) 20 – 25cm
125. The following are content of the midwifery kit EXCEPT
     (a) Pinard stethoscope
     (b) Sphygmomanometer
     (c) Portable suction machine
     (d) Kietland forcep
126. The midwife’s interpersonal skills while working in the community include EXCEPT
     (a) Judgement and dogmatism
     (b) Tactfulness
     (c) Persuasion
     (d) Adaptability to local environment
127. The following are components of primary health care EXCEPT
     (a) Portable water and environmental sanitation
     (b) Treatment of minor illnesses and injuries
     (c) Maternal and child health services
     (d) Appropriate technology
128. Medicines that satisfies the priority health needs of the population is ……………

(a) Controlled medicine
(b) Essential medicine
(c) Rational drug use
(d) Essential medicine index

129. Indications for home delivery include all EXCEPT (a) Good obstetric history
     (b) Adequate space/room in the house
     (c) Financial empowerment
     (d) Absence of communicable disease
130. At term, the total maternal weight gain is approximately (a) 12.5kg
     (b) 8.5kg
     (c) 16kg
     (d) 20kg
131. The acronym “IPT” in malaria treatment in pregnancy means
     (a) Intermittent preventive treatment
     (b) Intermittent positive treatment
     (c) International preventive training
     (d) Implementation of preventive treatment
132. One of these instrument is used to check for deep tendon reflexes (a) Patella hammer
     (b) Sledge hammer
     (c) Ball and socket hammer
     (d) Stanford hammer
133. Specific protection include …………………..? (a) Healthy environment
     (b) Avocdance of allergers
     (c) Immunization
     (d) Surveillance
134. The function of CU T380A is to prevent? (a) Fertilization
     (b) Implantation
     (c) Cleavage
     (d) Gastrulation
135. The most widely accepted method of family planning in Nigeria is? (a) Tubectomy

(b) Vasectomy
(c) Intra neterine devices
(d) Diaphragms

136. Implants contain ……………. Only
     (a) Oestrogen
     (b) Progestin
     (c) Oestrogen and progesterone
     (d) Oestradiol
137. Vasectomy involve cutting and tying of ………………………
     (a) Epididymis
     (b) Spermatic cord
     (c) Vas deferen
     (d) Seminal vesicle
138. Coitus interruptus refers to ……………….
     (a) Stoppage of sex
     (b) Withdrawal of penis before ejaculation
     (c) Interruption of sexual pleasure
     (d) Removal of the penis during sex
139. The endometrium is thickest at the …………….?
     (a) Isthmus
     (b) Uterine cavity
     (c) Cornua
     (d) Fundus
140. The neuromuscular harmony that prevail between the upper and lower segment throughout labor is …………………
     (a) Fundal domainance
     (b) Neural harmony
     (c) Polarity
     (d) Contraction ring
141. The umbilical cord consist of …………..
     (a) One artery and one vein
     (b) Two arteries and one vein
     (c) Two veins and one artery
     (d) Two arteries and to veins
142. The cells which contract and propel milk out of the breast is ……………
     (a) Glandular cells
     (b) Acini cells

(c) Muscle cells
(d) Myoepithelal cells

143. The steps to successful breast feeding are …………… (a) 5
     (b) 12
     (c) 7
     (d) 10
144. The decrease in funded height between 36-38 weeks of gestation is due to ……………..? (a) Cervical effacement
     (b) Engagement of the head
     (c) Descent
     (d) Lightening
145. The wave of blood flow to the uterus produce a sound call ……………….?
     (a) Fetal heart sound (b) Uterine wave
     (c) Uterine soufle (d) Sound wave
146. The first age of labour is recognized by the following EXCEPT (a) Rhythmic uterine contraction
     (b) Cervical affacement
     (c) 5cm cervical dilatation
     (d) Gaping of the anus
147. The diagnostic sign of second stage of labour is …………….. (a) Gaping of the anus
     (b) Displacement of pelvic muscle
     (c) Expulsive uterine contractions
     (d) Full dilatation of the cervix
148. A deliberate incision into the perineum to widen the pelvic outlet is called (a) Episiotomy
     (b) Lupectomy
     (c) Clitoridectomy
     (d) Mastectomy
149. Types of episiotomy include the following EXCEPT (a) Left mediolateral
     (b) Right mediolateral
     (c) Median
     (d) L – shaped
150. The angle of the plane of the pelvic brim with the pelvic floor is ……………. (a) 60o
     (b) 30o
     (c) 20o
     (d) 150o
151. The angle of the plane of the pelvic cavity with the floor is ……………..? (a) 60o
     (b) 30o (c) 15o (d) 20o
152. The angle of the plane of the outlet with the floor of the pelvis is ……………….? (a) 30o
     (b) 15o
     (c) 60o
     (d) 20o
153. The interspinous diameter is ………………. (a) 10.5 cm
     (b) 25.5 cm
     (c) 20.5 cm
     (d) 15.5 cm
154. The following are examples of cephalosporines EXCEPT (a) Cefixime
     (b) Cefiprime
     (c) Ceftriaxone
     (d) Cefuroxime
155. Actions of cephalosporins are? (a) Bacteriocidal
     (b) Bacteriostatic
     (c) Anti viral
     (d) Antifungal
156. Cephalosporin is ………………….. generation drugs? (a) 2nd

(b) 3rd (c) 4th (d) 5th

157. Vitamin K is also known as ……………………….. (a) Phytonadione
     (b) Phyllonadione
     (c) Penadione
     (d) Pathadione
158. Food sources of Vitamin K include ……………… and …………… (a) Beans and chicken
     (b) Green leafy vegetables and egg
     (c) Bread and fruits
     (d) Green leafy vegetables and fruits
159. Vitamin K has ……………………….. forms
     (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
160. Nystin belongs to the group of ……………………….? (a) Antibiotics
     (b) Antiemetic
     (c) Vitamins
     (d) Antifungal
161. ………….. is an indication for nystatin administration to babies (a) Oral thrush
     (b) Diarrhoea
     (c) Dysentery
     (d) Worm infestation
162. Vitamin K is administered routinely to new born to prevent ……………… (a) Omphalitis
     (b) Ophthalinia neonatorum
     (c) Heamorrhagic disease of newborn
     (d) Synthesis of red blood cell
163. One of these instruments is used to trace a missing IUCD (a) Alligator forcep
     (b) Drew-smythe catheter
     (c) Hegar’s dilator
     (d) Mayo’s artery forcep
164. Cusco’s vaginal speculum is used for the following procedures Except (a) To retract the vaginal wall during insertion of intra uterine devices
     (b) To view the cervix
     (c) To obtain specimen from the cervix for histology
     (d) To collect midstream urine specimen
165. In assisted forcep delivery, one of these instrument is not indicated for mid cavity (a) Keilland’s forcep
     (b) Neville-Barnes forcep
     (c) Wriggley’s forcep
     (d) Simpson’s forcep
166. Which instrument is used to clamp the baby’s cord before separation from the mother?
     (a) Allison’s forcep
     (b) Sim’s forcep
     (c) Mayo’s artery forcep (d) Neville-Barnes forcep
167. The unit for the measurement of weight is ……………… (a) Inches
     (b) Meter
     (c) Kilogram or Grams
     (d) Centimeter
168. The vagina is in relationship posteriorly with …………… (a) Fascia, urethra and uterus
     (b) Bladder, urethra and cervix
     (c) Pouch of douglas, rectum
     (d) Pelvic floor body
169. During pregnancy the muscle fibres of the uterus increase in size by a process of ……… (a) Hypertrophy
     (b) Hypertrophy and hyperplasia
     (c) Autolysis
     (d) Aplasia
170. Softening of the isthmus during pregnancy is known as …………… (a) Osiandor’s sign
     (b) Hegar’s sign
     (c) Chadwick sign
     (d) Braxton thick’s sign
171. A butterfuly shaped area of pigmentation that may occur on the face of pregnant women is known as ………..?
     (a) Linea nigra
     (b) Linea alba
     (c) Mongolian spot
     (d) Chloasma
172. The most likely cause of nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy is ………………?
     (a) Postural changes
     (b) Metabolic changes
     (c) Hormonal changes
     (d) Adaptational changes
173. A temperature of …………….. enables the production of viable sperm by the testis
     (a) 34.4oc
     (b) 36.5co
     (c) 37oc
     (d) 38oc
174. ………………..Method is used to calculate expected date of delivery
     (a) Macdonald
     (b) Bishop’s
     (c) Billings
     (d) Naegelle’s
175. Oxytocin is secreted by ……………. gland
     (a) Andrenal
     (b) Thyroid
     (c) Posterior pituitary
     (d) Anterior pituitary gland
176. In evaluating the clinical status of newborn at birth the midwife should …………
     (a) Assess temperature, appearance and weight
     (b) Ass respiration, heart rate, response to stimulus and muscle tone
     (c) Assess for congenital abnormality, length and weight
     (d) Assess mid upper arm, chest and head circumference
177. A tag of hymen that remains after first intercourse and child birth is called …………
     (a) Carbuncle
     (b) Funis
     (c) Fourchette
     (d) Carunculae myrtiformes
178. The vaginal orifice is also known as ……………….? (a) Cervical canal

(b) Vestibule
(c) Introitus
(d) External genitalia

179. The opening that run parallel with the urethra and open on each side of the female urethral orifice is ……………….?
     (a) Urethral meatus
     (b) Vestibule
     (c) Skene’s ducts
     (d) Vaginal orifice
180. The posterior wall of the pelvic cavity is approximately ………… centimeter in length?
     (a) 10cm
     (b) 11cm
     (c) 12cm
     (d) 13cm
181. The symphysis pubis form the anterior wall of the pelvic cavity and measures approximately ……………….. ?
     (a) 4cm in length
     (b) 3cm in length
     (c) 2cm in length
     (d) 5cm in length
182. Imaginary flat surfaces drawn at the level of the pelvic brim, cavity and outlet is called ……………..?
     (a) Planes of the pelvis
     (b) Inclination of the pelvis
     (c) Axis of the pelvis
     (d) Oblique diameter
183. The transverse diameter of the pelvic outlet is?
     (a) 13cm
     (b) 12cm
     (c) 10cm
     (d) 11cm
     (e)
184. One of these pelvis type has prominent ischial spines
     (a) Gynaecoid
     (b) Platypelloid
     (c) Anthropoid
     (d) Android
185. The pubic arch is formed by ………………….. and ……………….. (a) Symphysis pubis
     (b) Superior ramus and iliopectineal eminence
     (c) Right and left inferior rami
     (d) Obturator foramen and symphysis pubis
186. Which one of these divides the greater and lesser and sciatic notches (a) Ischial spines
     (b) Ischial tuberosity
     (c) Right and left inferior ramic
     (d) Obturator foramen and superior ramus
187. Normal fetal heart rate is between ……………………… (a) 100 – 180 b/m
     (b) 120 – 260 b/m
     (c) 160 – 180 b/m
     (d) 80 – 100 b/m
188. Accelerated fetal heart rate is also known as ………….. (a) Brady cardia
     (b) Hypoxia
     (c) Tachycardia
     (d) Apnoea
189. The placental site heals by …………….. (a) Dry gangrene
     (b) Necrosis
     (c) Exfoliation
     (d) Involution
190. Post partum blues occurs within ……………….. (a) 2 weeks post partum
     (b) 4 weeks post partum
     (c) 3-5 days post partum
     (d) 6-8 weeks post partum
191. The uterine cervix is ……….. shape (a) Rectangular
     (b) Globular

(c) Ovoid
(d) Cylindrical – conical

192. The cervix measures ……….. in the length and ……………. In diameter
     (a) 2.5 and 2.5
     (b) 5cm and 1.5cm
     (c) 1.5cm and 1.5cm
     (d) 2cm and 1.5cm
193. The Apgar scoring system was developed by ………………….
     (a) Dr. Valerie Apgar
     (b) Dr. Vianney Apgar
     (c) Dr. Virginia Apgar
     (d) Dr. Valentina Apgar
194. Which of these instrument is used to lift out a head which is on the pelvic outlet
     (a) Simpson forcep
     (b) Kielland forcep
     (c) Nerville – Barnes Forcep
     (d) Wriggleys forcep
195. During post menopausal phase, the ovaries are covered with ……………….
     (a) Glandular tissue
     (b) Cuboidal epithelium
     (c) Scar tissue
     (d) Fibrous tissue
196. Post partum IUD (PPIUD) is a new technique of inserting intra uterine contraceptive devices within …………….. hours of delivery
     (a) 72 hours
     (b) 90 hours
     (c) 105 hours
     (d) 152 hours
197. One of these methods of family planning offers dual protection
     (a) Diaphragm
     (b) Condoms
     (c) Implants
     (d) Progestin only pills
198. Unique characteristics of uterine muscle include all except
     (a) Contraction
     (b) Retraction
     (c) Relaxation

(d) Extension

199. In labour when the fetal head turn to be in normal alignment with the shoulder is ………
     (a) Flexion
     (b) Descent
     (c) Internal rotation
     (d) Restitution
200. The range of newborn blood pressure is …………………….
     (a) 100/50mmHg
     (b) 50-60/40-45mmHg
     (c) 35/45mmHg
     (d) 120/70mmHg
201. Which of these enzymes is responsible for conjugation of bilirubin?
     (a) Amino transferase
     (b) Glucoronyl transferase
     (c) Chemotrypsin
     (d) Trypsin
202. The first cry of the newborn is known as ………………
     (a) Vagitus
     (b) Murmurs
     (c) Grunting
     (d) Mutism
203. These are characteristics of the newborn EXCEPT
     (a) Lusty cry
     (b) Plenty lanugo
     (c) Pink skin
     (d) Good muscle tone
204. Hormonal and mechanical changes in the urinary tract during pregnancy increases risk of ……………….
     (a) Amniotic fluid embolism
     (b) Renal failure

(c) Urinary tract infection (d) Prolonged pregnancy

205. During pregnancy, the kidneys lengthens by …………………..
     (a) 1.5cm
     (b) 2cm
     (c) 3cm
     (d) 5cm
206. The most favorable analgesic a midwife should administer in first stage of labor is ……
     (a) Pethidine
     (b) Pethilorphan
     (c) Pentozocine
     (d) Morphine
207. The role of the community midwife in maternal health services include the following
     EXCEPT
     (a) Provision of antenatal, intranatal & postnatal care
     (b) Health education
     (c) Taking decisions for community members
     (d) Provision of family planning services
208. Growth monitoring is for children of …………………………
     (a) Below 2 years
     (b) 2 – 3 years
     (c) Birth to 5 years
     (d) Above 5 years
209. All are immunizable diseases in children EXCEPT
     (a) Poliomyelitis
     (b) Tuberculosis
     (c) Tetanus
     (d) Omphalitis
210. A system where babies remains at the mother’s bedside for most of the time is known as …………………?
     (a) Attachment parenting
     (b) Bounding
     (c) Rooming – in
     (d) Creche
211. Return of the uterus to pre-gravid state is ………………..?
     (a) Inversion
     (b) Evisceration

(c) Involution
(d) Sub involution

212. Many mothers may experience mood swing characterized by occasional unexpected crying, sensitivity and sadness known as ……………..?
     (a) Post partum blues
     (b) Post partum greens
     (c) Post partum mood
     (d) Post partum depression
213. Post partum depression begins ……………….. after delivery?
     (a) 1 week
     (b) 2 week
     (c) 2 – 3 days
     (d) Immediately
214. The female pelvis is composed of ……………… bones
     (a) 4
     (b) 3
     (c) 2
     (d) 5
215. Self digestion of the uterine fibres by proteolytic enzymes during pueperum is …………
     (a) Lysis
     (b) Autolysis
     (c) Thrombosis
     (d) Retraction
216. Rotavirus vaccine is given at ……………… and ………………. weeks
     (a) 4 weeks and 10
     (b) 6 and 10 weeks
     (c) 12 and 16 weeks
     (d) At birth
217. The route for rotavirus vaccine is ………………………..
     (a) Mouth
     (b) Right outer thigh
     (c) Left upper arm
     (d) Right upper arm
218. The dose of rotavirus vaccine is …………………

(a) 5 drops
(b) 0.05vels
(c) 0.5vel
(d) 1.5vel

219. Pneumococcal conjugale vaccine is given at ……….. weeks of age
     (a) At birth
     (b) 6, 10 and 14 weeks
     (c) 4 and 10 weeks
     (d) 10 weeks
220. At ejaculation …………………… mililitre of semen is deposited in the vagina
     (a) 2-4mls
     (b) 5mls
     (c) About 7mls
     (d) 10mls
221. The seminal fluid contain about …………. Sperm per ml
     (a) 100,000
     (b) 100,000000
     (c) 5million
     (d) 20,000
222. The sperm should move at ……………….. speed per minute
     (a) 2-3 mm/minutes
     (b) 1.5mm/minute
     (c) 1mm/minute
     (d) 0.5mm/minute
223. The two lateral columns of the penis that lies one on either side in front of the urethra is …………………….?
     (a) Ejaculatory ducts
     (b) Corpus spongiosum
     (c) Bulbo urethral glands
     (d) Corpora cavernosa
224. The testes is made up of three layers from outer to inner in ………………. Order
     (a) Tunical vaginalis, tunica albuginea, tunica vasculosa
     (b) Tunica albuginea, tunica vaginalis and tunica vasculosa
     (c) Tunica vasculosa, tunica vaginalis and tunica albuginea
     (d) Tunica albuginea, tunica vaginalis and tunica vasculosa
225. The testis is divided into ……………………. …………………….. lobules (a) 200 – 300

(b) Millions (c) 10,000 (d) 1000

226. Spermatrogenesis occurs at ………………………..? (a) Epididymis
     (b) Seminiferous tubules
     (c) Bulbo – urethral glands
     (d) Prostate gland
227. Mature sperm are stored in the ……………. and ………. until ejaculation
     (a) Prostate gland
     (b) Epididymis and deferent duct (c) Bulbo urethral gland
     (d) Bladder
228. Psychosocial theory of human development has …………………….. stages (a) 12
     (b) 5
     (c) 8
     (d) 4
229. The cognitive theory of development was postulated by ………………………. (a) Sigmund Freud
     (b) Albert Bandura
     (c) Jean Piaget
     (d) Erick Erikson
230. One of these is the adaptation theorist (a) Dorothea Orem
     (b) Sister Callista Roy
     (c) Betty Neuman
     (d) Nola Pender
231. Which of the following is known as ego psychologist? (a) Skinner
     (b) Ivan Pavlov
     (c) Sigmund Freud
     (d) Erik Erikson
232. The two most widely used method of growth assessment in children is …….. and ……. (a) Head and chest circumference
     (b) Abdominal girth and height
     (c) Body mass index and mid upper arm circumference

(d) Weight and height

233. Breastfed babies does not need ………………… for the first six months of life (a) Iron and vitamin supplements
     (b) Warmth
     (c) Breast milk
     (d) Protection from infection
234. These are anti infective agents found in breast milk EXCEPT?
     (a) Iron
     (b) Interferon
     (c) Secretary immunoglobulins (d) Lactobacillus bifidus
235. Exclusive breast feeding means with all EXCEPT? (a) No drink or food other than breast milk for 6 months (b) No infant formula or animal milk
     (c) Feeding baby on demand
     (d) Use pacifiers, dummies or artificial teat
236. Breast feeding should stop at ……………………. (a) At 6months
     (b) At 12months
     (c) At 18months
     (d) At 24months
237. Emergency contraceptives (ECPs) are used within ….. days after unprotected sex (a) 24hrs
     (b) 48 – 72hrs
     (c) 5days
     (d) 7days
238. Which of these is referred to as “morning-after or post coital pills” (a) Implants
     (b) Progestine only pills
     (c) Emergency contraceptives pills
     (d) Combined oral contraceptive pills
239. Side effects of contraceptive pills include all EXCEPT? (a) Weight gain
     (b) Abdominal distension
     (c) Breast tenderness
     (d) Nausea and vomiting
240. Before injecting NET – EN –
     (a) Rock the bottle to and fro to allow content mix properly
     (b) Rub vial between the palm to enhance complete withdrawal
     (c) shake the vial vigorously
     (d) Place vial inside warm or cool water
241. Which of these is a chemical barrier method of family planning
     (a) Condoms
     (b) Cervical cap
     (c) Foams and jellies
     (d) Implants
242. One of these intra uterine contraceptive devices contain copper and silver
     (a) Nova T
     (b) Cu T380A
     (c) Mirena
     (d) Multi Load
243. All of the following provides mechanical barrier to passage of sperm into the cervix EXCEPT?
     (a) Condoms
     (b) Diaphragm
     (c) Cervical cap
     (d) Patches
244. A document which prescribed who is eligible for what method of family planning is…….
     (a) Medical fitness record
     (b) Eligibility criteria
     (c) W.H.O medical eligibility criteria
     (d) Summary form
245. Implanon contain …………….. mg of etonogestrel
     (a) 68
     (b) 150
     (c) 50
     (d) 200
246. Family history is obtained during antenatal visit to determine ………………….?
     (a) Family size
     (b) Family life style
     (c) Family relationship
     (d) Genetic disposition
247. Checking client blood pressure is a ……………………

(a) Subjective data
(b) Comparative data
(c) Objective data
(d) Career data

248. Techniques used in abdominal palpation include all EXCEPT?
     (a) Auscultation and percussion
     (b) Fundal palpation
     (c) Lateral palpation
     (d) Pelvic palpation
249. Toxic chemical, radiation, pesticedes and hazardous compounds that cause fetal defects are known as ……………….?
     (a) Genetic markers
     (b) Teratogens
     (c) Carcinogens
     (d) Environmental pollution
250. A small scale trial run of a research study is referred to as …………………
     (a) Case study
     (b) Cohort study
     (c) Pilot study
     (d) Pivot study
251. B 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. A 11. D 12. C 13. A 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. D 21. B 22. B 23. A 24. A 25. A 26. c 27. C 28. D 29. D 30. C 31. C 32. B 33. B 34. D 35. D 36. A 37. C 38. D 39. A
     PAPER MARKING SCHEME
252. B 41. D 42. A 43. C 44. B 45. D 46. B 47. B 48. B 49. C 50. A
253. C 52. B 53. C 54. A 55. A 56. B 57. B 58. B 59. D 60. D 61. C 62. B 63. A 64. B 65. A 66. A 67. B 68. D 69. C 70. C 71. A 72. B 73. C 74. B 75. C 76. D 77. D 78. C
254. B 80. A 81. B 82. B 83. A 84. C 85. A 86. A 87. C 88. D 89. B 90. D 91. A 92. D 93. A 94. C 95. B 96. B 97. D 98. A 99. A
255. B
256. D
257. C
258. D
259. B
260. B
261. B
262. C
263. C
264. C
265. C
266. A
267. C
268. C
269. C
270. A
271. D
272. B
273. C
274. C
275. C
276. B
277. B
278. D
279. B
280. D
281. A
282. D
283. B
284. C
285. A
286. A
287. A
288. C
289. B
290. C
291. B
292. C
293. B
294. D
295. C
296. B
297. D
298. D
299. D
300. C
301. D
302. D
303. A
304. D
305. A
306. A
307. B
308. B
309. B
310. A
311. D
312. A
313. B
314. A
315. D
316. A
317. C
318. A
319. D
320. C
321. C
322. C
323. C
324. B
325. B
326. D
327. C
328. A
329. D
330. C
331. B
332. D
333. C
334. C
335. A
336. A
337. A
338. D
339. D
340. C
341. B
342. B
343. C
344. C
345. A
346. D
347. A
348. C
349. D
350. C
351. A
352. A
353. D
354. D
355. B
356. B
357. A
358. B
359. C
360. A
361. B
362. C
363. C
364. D
365. C
366. C
367. A
368. C
369. A
370. B
371. B
372. A
373. A
374. B
375. A
376. B
377. A
378. D
379. A
380. A
381. B
382. B
383. C
384. C
385. B
386. D
387. D
388. A
389. A
390. A
391. D
392. C
393. C
394. B
395. B
396. C
397. A
398. D
399. C
400. A
401. D
402. C
403. A
404. B
405. C