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NMCN Professional Exam Past Questions And Answers For 2024/2025

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NMCN Professional Exam Past Questions And Answers For 2024/2025

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OF THE RESPIRATORY SYSTEM 

SECTION 1

1. Question

Aminophylline (theophylline) is prescribed for a client with acute bronchitis. A nurse administers the medication, knowing that the primary action of this medication is to:

A. Promote expectoration.

B. Suppress the cough.

C. Relax smooth muscles of the bronchial airway.

D. Prevent infection.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: C. Relax smooth muscles of the bronchial airway.

2. Question

A client is receiving isoetharine hydrochloride (Bronkosol) via a nebulizer. The nurse monitors the client for which side effect of this medication?

A. Constipation

B. Diarrhea

C. Bradycardia

D. Tachycardia

Correct

Correct Answer: D. Tachycardia

3. Question

A nurse teaches a client about the use of a respiratory inhaler. Which action by the client indicated a need for further teaching?

A. Removes the cap and shakes the inhaler well before use.

B. Press the canister down with your finger as he breathes in.

C. Inhales the mist and quickly exhales.

D. Waits 1 to 2 minutes between puffs if more than one puff has been prescribed.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: C. Inhales the mist and quickly exhales.

4. Question

A female client is scheduled to have a chest radiograph. Which of the following questions is of most importance to the nurse assessing this client?

A. “Is there any possibility that you could be pregnant?”

B. “Are you wearing any metal chains or jewelry?”

C. “Can you hold your breath easily?”

D. “Are you able to hold your arms above your head?”

Incorrect

Correct Answer: A. “Is there any possibility that you could be pregnant?”

5. Question

A client has just returned to a nursing unit following bronchoscopy. A nurse would implement which of the following nursing interventions for this client?

A. Encouraging additional fluids for the next 24 hours

B. Ensuring the return of the gag reflex before offering foods or fluids

C. Administering atropine intravenously

D. Administering small doses of midazolam (Versed).

Incorrect

Correct Answer: B. Ensuring the return of the gag reflex before offering foods or fluids

6. Question

A client has an order to have radial ABG drawn. Before drawing the sample, a nurse occludes the:

A. Brachial and radial arteries, and then releases them and observes the circulation of the hand.

B. Radial and ulnar arteries, releases one, evaluates the color of the hand, and repeats the process with the other artery.

C. Radial artery and observes for color changes in the affected hand.

D. Ulnar artery and observes for color changes in the affected hand.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: B. Radial and ulnar arteries, releases one, evaluates the color of the hand, and repeats the process with the other artery.

7. Question

A nurse is assessing a client with chronic airflow limitation and notes that the client has a “barrel chest.” The nurse interprets that this client has which of the following forms of chronic airflow limitation?

A. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

B. Emphysema

C. Bronchial asthma

D. Bronchial asthma and bronchitis

Incorrect

Correct Answer: B. Emphysema

8. Question

A client has been taking benzonatate (Tessalon Perles) as prescribed. A nurse concludes that the medication is having the intended effect if the client experiences:

A. Decreased anxiety level.

B. Increased comfort level.

C. Reduction of N/V.

D. Decreased frequency and intensity of cough.

Correct

Correct Answer: D. Decreased frequency and intensity of cough.

9. Question

Which of the following would be an expected outcome for a client recovering from an upper respiratory tract infection? The client will:

A. Maintain a fluid intake of 800 ml every 24 hours.

B. Experience chills only once a day.

C. Cough productively without chest discomfort.

D. Experience less nasal obstruction and discharge.

Correct

Correct Answer: D. Experience less nasal obstruction and discharge.

10. Question

Which of the following individuals would the nurse consider to have the highest priority for receiving an influenza vaccination?

A. A 60-year-old man with a hiatal hernia.

B. A 36-year-old woman with 3 children.

C. A 50-year-old woman caring for a spouse with cancer.

D. A 60-year-old woman with osteoarthritis.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: C. A 50-year-old woman caring for a spouse with cancer.

11. Question

A client with allergic rhinitis asks the nurse what he should do to decrease his symptoms. Which of the following instructions would be appropriate for the nurse to give the client?

A. “Use your nasal decongestant spray regularly to help clear your nasal passages.”

B. “Ask the doctor for antibiotics. Antibiotics will help decrease the secretion.”

C. “It is important to increase your activity. A daily brisk walk will help promote drainage.”

D. “Keep a diary when your symptoms occur. This can help you identify what precipitates your attacks.”

Incorrect

Correct Answer: D. “Keep a diary when your symptoms occur. This can help you identify what precipitates your attacks.”

12. Question

An elderly client has been ill with the flu, experiencing headache, fever, and chills. After 3 days, she developed a cough productive of yellow sputum. The nurse auscultates her lungs and hears diffuse crackles. How would the nurse best interpret these assessment findings?

A. It is likely that the client is developing a secondary bacterial pneumonia.

B. The assessment findings are consistent with influenza and are to be expected.

C. The client is getting dehydrated and needs to increase her fluid intake to decrease secretions

D. The client has not been taking her decongestants and bronchodilators as prescribed.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: A. It is likely that the client is developing a secondary bacterial pneumonia.

13. Question

Guaifenesin 300 mg four times daily has been ordered as an expectorant. The dosage strength of the liquid is 200mg/5ml. How many mL should the nurse administer each dose? Fill in the blank and record your final answer using one decimal place.

Answer:  mL

Correct

Correct Answer: 7.5 ml

14. Question

Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) has been ordered as a nasal decongestant. Which of the following is a possible side effect of this drug?

A. Constipation

B. Bradycardia

C. Diplopia

D. Restlessness

Correct

Correct Answer: D. Restlessness

15. Question

A client with COPD reports steady weight loss and being “too tired from just breathing to eat.” Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be most appropriate when planning nutritional interventions for this client?

A. Altered nutrition: Less than body requirements related to fatigue.

B. Activity intolerance related to dyspnea.

C. Weight loss related to COPD.

D. Ineffective breathing pattern related to alveolar hypoventilation.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: A. Altered nutrition: Less than body requirements related to fatigue.

16. Question

When developing a discharge plan to manage the care of a client with COPD, the nurse should anticipate that the client will do which of the following?

A. Develop infections easily.

B. Maintain current status.

C. Require less supplemental oxygen.

D. Show permanent improvement.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: A. Develop infections easily.

17. Question

Which of the following outcomes would be appropriate for a client with COPD who has been discharged to home? The client:

A. Promises to do pursed lip breathing at home.

B. States actions to reduce pain.

C. States that he will use oxygen via a nasal cannula at 5 L/minute.

D. Agrees to call the physician if dyspnea on exertion increases.

Correct

Correct Answer: D. Agrees to call the physician if dyspnea on exertion increases.

18. Question

Which of the following physical assessment findings would the nurse expect to find in a client with advanced COPD?

A. Increased anteroposterior chest diameter.

B. Underdeveloped neck muscles.

C. Collapsed neck veins.

D. Increased chest excursions with respiration.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: A. Increased anteroposterior chest diameter.

19. Question

Which of the following is the primary reason to teach pursed-lip breathing to clients with emphysema?

A. To promote oxygen intake.

B. To strengthen the diaphragm.

C. To strengthen the intercostal muscles.

D. To promote carbon dioxide elimination.

Correct

Correct Answer: D. To promote carbon dioxide elimination.

20. Question

Which of the following is a priority goal for the client with COPD?

A. Maintaining functional ability.

B. Minimizing chest pain.

C. Increasing carbon dioxide levels in the blood.

D. Treating infectious agents.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: A. Maintaining functional ability

21. Question

A client’s arterial blood gas levels are as follows: pH 7.31; PaO2 80 mm Hg, PaCO2 65 mm Hg; HCO3- 36 mEq/L. Which of the following signs or symptoms would the nurse expect?

A. Cyanosis

B. Flushed skin

C. Irritability

D. Anxiety

Incorrect

Correct Answer: B. Flushed skin

22. Question

When teaching a client with COPD to conserve energy, the nurse should teach the client to lift objects:

A. While inhaling through an open mouth.

B. While exhaling through pursed lips.

C. After exhaling but before inhaling.

D. While taking a deep breath and holding it.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: B. While exhaling through pursed lips.

23. Question

The nurse teaches a client with COPD to assess for s/s of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following s/s would be included in the teaching plan?

A. Clubbing of nail beds

B. Hypertension

C. Peripheral edema

D. Increased appetite

Incorrect

Correct Answer: C. Peripheral edema

24. Question

The nurse assesses the respiratory status of a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of COPD secondary to an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following findings would be expected?

Normal breath sounds

A. Normal breath sounds

B. Prolonged inspiration

C. Normal chest movement

D. Coarse crackles and rhonchi

Incorrect

Correct Answer: D. Coarse crackles and rhonchi

25. Question

Which of the following ABG abnormalities should the nurse anticipate in a client with advanced COPD?

A. Increased PaCO2

B. Increased PaO2

C. Increased pH

D. Increased oxygen saturation

Incorrect

Correct Answer: A. Increased PaCO2

26. Question

Which of the following diets would be most appropriate for a client with COPD?

A. Low fat, low cholesterol

B. Bland, soft diet

C. Low-Sodium diet

D. High calorie, high-protein diet

Correct

Correct Answer: D. High-calorie, high-protein diet

27. Question

The nurse is planning to teach a client with COPD how to cough effectively. Which of the following instructions should be included?

A. Take a deep abdominal breath, bend forward, and cough 3 to 4 times on exhalation.

B. Lie flat on back, splint the thorax, take two deep breaths and cough.

C. Take several rapid, shallow breaths and then cough forcefully.

D. Assume a side-lying position, extend the arm over the head, and alternate deep breathing with coughing.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: A. Take a deep abdominal breath, bend forward, and cough 3 to 4 times on exhalation.

28. Question

A 34-year-old woman with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department. The nurse notes that the client is dyspneic, with a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/minute, nasal flaring, and use of accessory muscles. Auscultation of the lung fields reveals greatly diminished breath sounds. Based on these findings, what action should the nurse take to initiate care of the client?

A. Initiate oxygen therapy and reassess the client in 10 minutes.

B. Draw blood for an ABG analysis and send the client for a chest x-ray.

C. Encourage the client to relax and breathe slowly through the mouth.

D. Administer bronchodilators.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: D. Administer bronchodilators.

29. Question

The nurse would anticipate which of the following ABG results in a client experiencing a prolonged, severe asthma attack?

A. Decreased PaCO2, increased PaO2, and decreased pH.

B. Increased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and decreased pH.

C. Increased PaCO2, increased PaO2, and increased pH.

D. Decreased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and increased pH.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: B. Increased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and decreased pH.

30. Question

A client with acute asthma is prescribed short-term corticosteroid therapy. What is the rationale for the use of steroids in clients with asthma?

A. Corticosteroids promote bronchodilation.

B. Corticosteroids act as an expectorant.

C. Corticosteroids have an anti-inflammatory effect.

D. Corticosteroids prevent development of respiratory infections.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: C. Corticosteroids have an anti-inflammatory effect.

31. Question

The nurse is teaching the client how to use a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) to administer a Corticosteroid drug. Which of the following client actions indicates that he is using the MDI correctly? Select all that apply.

A. The inhaler is held upright.

B. Head is tilted down while inhaling the medication.

C. Client waits 5 minutes between puffs.

D. Mouth is rinsed with water following administration.

E. Client lies supine for 15 minutes following administration.

Incorrect

Correct Answers: A & D.

32. Question

A client is prescribed metaproterenol (Alupent) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), two puffs every 4 hours. The nurse instructs the client to report side effects. Which of the following are potential side effects of metaproterenol?

A. Irregular heartbeat

B. Constipation

C. Pedal edema

D. Decreased heart rate.

Correct Answer: A. Irregular heartbeat

33. Question

A client has been taking flunisolide (Aerobid), two inhalations a day, for treatment of asthma. He tells the nurse that he has painful, white patches in his mouth. Which response by the nurse would be the most appropriate?

A. “This is an anticipated side-effect of your medication. It should go away in a couple of weeks.”

B. “You are using your inhaler too much and it has irritated your mouth.”

C. “You have developed a fungal infection from your medication. It will need to be treated with an antifungal.”

D. “Be sure to brush your teeth and floss daily. Good oral hygiene will treat this problem.”

Incorrect

Correct Answer: C. “You have developed a fungal infection from your medication. It will need to be treated with an antifungal.”

34. Question

Which of the following health promotion activities should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan for a client with asthma?

A. Incorporate physical exercise as tolerated into the treatment plan.

B. Monitor peak flow numbers after meals and at bedtime.

C. Eliminate stressors in the work and home environment.

D. Use sedatives to ensure uninterrupted sleep at night.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: A. Incorporate physical exercise as tolerated into the treatment plan.

35. Question

The client with asthma should be taught which of the following is one of the most common precipitating factors of an acute asthma attack?

A. Occupational exposure to toxins.

B. Viral respiratory infections.

C. Exposure to cigarette smoke.

D. Exercising in cold temperatures.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: B. Viral respiratory infections.

36. Question

A female client comes into the emergency room complaining of SOB and pain in the lung area. She states that she started taking birth control pills 3 weeks ago and that she smokes. Her VS are: 140/80, P 110, R 40. The physician orders ABG’s, results are as follows: pH: 7.50; PaCO2 29 mm Hg; PaO2 60 mm Hg; HCO3- 24 mEq/L; SaO2 86%. Considering these results, the first intervention is to:

A. Begin mechanical ventilation.

B. Place the client on oxygen.

C. Give the client sodium bicarbonate.

D. Monitor for pulmonary embolism.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: B. Place the client on oxygen

37. Question

Basilar crackles are present in a client’s lungs on auscultation. The nurse knows that these are discrete, non continuous sounds that are:

A. Caused by the sudden opening of alveoli.

B. Usually more prominent during expiration.

C. Produced by airflow across passages narrowed by secretions.

D. Found primarily in the pleura.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: A. Caused by the sudden opening of alveoli

38. Question

A cyanotic client with an unknown diagnosis is admitted to the E.R. In relation to oxygen, the first nursing action would be to:

A. Wait until the client’s lab work is done.

B. Not administer oxygen unless ordered by the physician.

C. Administer oxygen at 2 L flow per minute.

D. Administer oxygen at 10 L flow per minute and check the client’s nail beds.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: C. Administer oxygen at 2 L flow per minute.

39. Question

Immediately following a thoracentesis, which clinical manifestations indicate that a complication has occurred and the physician should be notified?

A. Serosanguineous drainage from the puncture site.

B. Increased temperature and blood pressure.

C. Increased pulse and pallor.

D. Hypotension and hypothermia.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: C. Increased pulse and pallor

40. Question

If a client continues to hypoventilate, the nurse will continually assess for a complication of:

A. Respiratory acidosis

B. Respiratory alkalosis

C. Metabolic acidosis

D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct Answer: A. Respiratory acidosis

41. Question

A client is admitted to the hospital with acute bronchitis. While taking the client’s VS, the nurse notices he has an irregular pulse. The nurse understands that cardiac arrhythmias in chronic respiratory distress are usually the result of:

A. Respiratory acidosis

B. A build-up of carbon dioxide

C. A build-up of oxygen without adequate expelling of carbon dioxide.

D. An acute respiratory infection.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: B. A build-up of carbon dioxide.

42. Question

Auscultation of a client’s lungs reveals crackles in the left posterior base. The nursing intervention is to:

A. Repeat auscultation after asking the client to deep breathe and cough.

B. Instruct the client to limit fluid intake to less than 2000 ml/day.

C. Inspect the client’s ankles and sacrum for the presence of edema.

D. Place the client on bedrest in a semi-Fowler’s position.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: A. Repeat auscultation after asking the client to deep breathe and cough.

43. Question

The most reliable index to determine the respiratory status of a client is to:

A. Observe the chest rising and falling.

B. Observe the skin and mucous membrane color.

C. Listen and feel the air movement.

D. Determine the presence of a femoral pulse.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: C. Listen and feel the air movement.

44. Question

A client with COPD has developed secondary polycythemia. Which nursing diagnosis would be included in the plan of care because of the polycythemia?

A. Fluid volume deficit related to blood loss.

B. Impaired tissue perfusion related to thrombosis.

C. Activity intolerance related to dyspnea.

D. Risk for infection related to suppressed immune response.

Correct Answer: B. Impaired tissue perfusion related to thrombosis.

45. Question

The physician has scheduled a client for a left pneumonectomy. The position that will most likely be ordered postoperatively for his is the:

A. Nonoperative side or back

B. Operative side or back

C. Back only

D. Back or either side.

Correct Answer: B. Operative side or back

46. Question

Assessing a client who has developed atelectasis postoperatively, the nurse will most likely find:

A. A flushed face.

B. Dyspnea and pain.

C. Decreased temperature.

D. Severe cough and no pain.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: B. Dyspnea and pain

47. Question

A fifty-year-old client has a tracheostomy and requires tracheal suctioning. The first intervention in completing this procedure would be to:

A. Change the tracheostomy dressing.

B. Provide humidity with a trach mask.

C. Apply oral or nasal suction.

D. Deflate the tracheal cuff.

Correct Answer: C. Apply oral or nasal suction.

48. Question

A client states that the physician said the tidal volume is slightly diminished and asks the nurse what this means. The nurse explains that the tidal volume is the amount of air:

A. Exhaled forcibly after a normal expiration.

B. Exhaled after there is a normal inspiration.

C. Trapped in the alveoli that cannot be exhaled.

D. Forcibly inspired over and above a normal respiration.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: B. Exhaled after there is a normal inspiration.

49. Question

An acceleration in oxygen dissociation from hemoglobin, and thus oxygen delivery to the tissues, is caused by:

A. A decreasing oxygen pressure in the blood.

B. An increasing carbon dioxide pressure in the blood.

C. A decreasing oxygen pressure and/or an increasing carbon dioxide pressure in the blood.

D. An increasing oxygen pressure and/or a decreasing carbon dioxide pressure in the blood.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: C. A decreasing oxygen pressure and/or an increasing carbon dioxide pressure in the blood.

50. Question

The best method of oxygen administration for client with COPD uses:

A. Cannula

B. Simple Face mask

C. Non-rebreather mask

D. Venturi mask

Correct Answer: D. Venturi mask

SECTION 2

1. Question

Dr. Jones prescribes albuterol sulfate (Proventil) for a patient with newly diagnosed asthma. When teaching the patient about this drug, the nurse should explain that it may cause:

A. Nasal congestion

B. Nervousness

C. Lethargy

D. Hyperkalemia

Incorrect

Correct Answer: B. Nervousness

2. Question

Miriam, a college student with acute rhinitis sees the campus nurse because of excessive nasal drainage. The nurse asks the patient about the color of the drainage. In acute rhinitis, nasal drainage normally is:

A. Yellow

B. Green

C. Clear

D. Gray

Incorrect

Correct Answer: C. Clear

3. Question

A male adult patient hospitalized for treatment of a pulmonary embolism develops respiratory alkalosis. Which clinical findings commonly accompany respiratory alkalosis?

A. Nausea or vomiting

B. Abdominal pain or diarrhea

C. Hallucinations or tinnitus

D. Lightheadedness or parenthesis 

Correct Answer: D. Lightheadedness or paresthesia

4. Question

Before administering ephedrine, Nurse Tony assesses the patient’s history. Because of ephedrine’s central nervous system (CNS) effects, it is not recommended for:

A. Patients with an acute asthma attack.

B. Patients with narcolepsy.

C. Patients under age

D. Elderly patients.

Correct Answer: D. Elderly patients

5. Question

A female patient suffers acute respiratory distress syndrome as a consequence of shock. The patient’s condition deteriorates rapidly, and endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation are initiated. When the high-pressure alarm on the mechanical ventilator, alarm sounds, the nurse starts to check for the cause. Which condition triggers the high-pressure alarm?

A. Kinking of the ventilator tubing.

B. A disconnected ventilator tube.

C. An endotracheal cuff leak.

D. A change in the oxygen concentration without resetting the oxygen level alarm.

Correct Answer: A. Kinking of the ventilator tubing.

6. Question

A male adult patient on mechanical ventilation is receiving pancuronium bromide (Pavulon), 0.01 mg/kg I.V. as needed. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient needs another pancuronium dose?

Leg movement

A. Leg movement

B. Finger movement

C. Lip movement

D. Fighting the ventilator

Correct Answer: D. Fighting the ventilator

7. Question

On auscultation, which finding suggests a right pneumothorax?

A. Bilateral inspiratory and expiratory crackles.

B. Absence of breaths sound in the right thorax.

C. Inspiratory wheezes in the right thorax.

D. Bilateral pleural friction rub.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: B. Absence of breaths sound in the right thorax

8. Question

Rhea, confused and short breath, is brought to the emergency department by a family member. The medical history reveals chronic bronchitis and hypertension. To learn more about the current respiratory problem, the doctor orders a chest x-ray and arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis. When reviewing the ABG report, the nurses see many abbreviations. What does a lowercase “a” in ABG value present?

A. Acid-base balance

B. Arterial Blood

C. Arterial oxygen saturation

D. Alveoli

Correct Answer: B. Arterial Blood

9. Question

A male patient is admitted to the healthcare facility for treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which nursing diagnosis is most important for this patient?

A. Activity intolerance related to fatigue.

B. Anxiety related to actual threat to health status.

C. Risk for infection related to retained secretions.

D. Impaired gas exchange related to airflow obstruction.

Correct Answer: D. Impaired gas exchange related to airflow obstruction.

10. Question

Nurse Ruth assessing a patient for tracheal displacement should know that the trachea will deviate toward the:

A. Contralateral side in a simple pneumothorax.

B. Affected side in a hemothorax.

C. Affected side in a tension pneumothorax.

D. Contralateral side in hemothorax.

Correct Answer: D. Contralateral side in hemothorax.

11. Question

After undergoing a left pneumonectomy, a female patient has a chest tube in place for drainage. When caring for this patient, the nurse must:

A. Monitor fluctuations in the water-seal chamber.

B. Clamp the chest tube once every shift.

C. Encourage coughing and deep breathing.

D. Milk the chest tube every 2 hours.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: C. Encourage coughing and deep breathing

12. Question

When caring for a male patient who has just had a total laryngectomy, the nurse should plan to:

A. Encourage oral feeding as soon as possible.

B. Develop an alternative communication method.

C. Keep the tracheostomy cuff fully inflated.

D. Keep the patient flat in bed.

Correct Answer: B. Develop an alternative communication method.

13. Question

A male patient has a sucking stab wound to the chest. Which action should the nurse take first?

A. Drawing blood for a hematocrit and hemoglobin level.

B. Applying a dressing over the wound and taping it on three sides.

C. Preparing a chest tube insertion tray.

D. Preparing to start an I.V. line.

Correct Answer: B. Applying a dressing over the wound and taping it on three sides.

14. Question

For a patient with advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which nursing action best promotes adequate gas exchange?

A. Encouraging the patient to drink three glasses of fluid daily.

B. Keeping the patient in semi-Fowler’s position.

C. Using a high-flow venturi mask to deliver oxygen as prescribed.

D. Administering a sedative, as prescribed.

Correct Answer: C. Using a high-flow venturi mask to deliver oxygen as prescribe

15. Question

A male patient’s X-ray result reveals bilateral white-outs, indicating acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). This syndrome results from:

A. Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

B. Respiratory alkalosis

C. Increased pulmonary capillary permeability

D. Renal failure

Correct Answer: C. Increased pulmonary capillary permeability

16. Question

For a female patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which nursing intervention would help maintain a patent airway?

A. Restricting fluid intake to 1,000 ml per day.

B. Enforcing absolute bed rest.

C. Teaching the patient how to perform controlled coughing.

D. Administering prescribed sedatives regularly and in large amounts.

Correct Answer: C. Teaching the patient how to perform controlled coughing.

17. Question

Nurse Lei, caring for a client with a pneumothorax and who has had a chest tube inserted, continues gentle bubbling in the suction control chamber. What action is appropriate?

A. Do nothing, because this is an expected finding.

B. Immediately clamp the chest tube and notify the physician.

C. Check for an air leak because the bubbling should be intermittent.

D. Increase the suction pressure so that the bubbling becomes vigorous.

Correct Answer: A. Do nothing, because this is an expected finding.

18. Question

Nurse Maureen has assisted a physician with the insertion of a chest tube. The nurse monitors the client and notes fluctuation of the fluid level in the water seal chamber after the tube is inserted. Based on this assessment, which action would be appropriate?

A. Inform the physician.

B. Continue to monitor the client.

C. Reinforce the occlusive dressing.

D. Encourage the client to deep breathe.

Correct Answer: B. Continue to monitor the client.

19. Question

Nurse Reynolds caring for a client with a chest tube turns the client to the side, and the chest tube accidentally disconnects. The initial nursing action is to:

A. Call the physician.

B. Place the tube in a bottle of sterile water.

C. Immediately replace the chest tube system.

D. Place a sterile dressing over the disconnection site.

Correct Answer: B. Place the tube in a bottle of sterile water.

20. Question

A nurse is assisting a physician with the removal of a chest tube. The nurse should instruct the client to:

A. Exhale slowly

B. Stay very still

C. Inhale and exhale quickly

D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver

Correct Answer: D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.

21. Question

While changing the tapes on a tracheostomy tube, the male client coughs and the tube is dislodged. The initial nursing action is to:

A. Call the physician to reinsert the tube.

B. Grasp the retention sutures to spread the opening.

C. Call the respiratory therapy department to reinsert the tracheotomy.

D. Cover the tracheostomy site with a sterile dressing to prevent infection.

Correct Answer: B. Grasp the retention sutures to spread the opening.

22. Question

Nurse Oliver is caring for a client immediately after removal of the endotracheal tube. The nurse reports which of the following signs immediately if experienced by the client?

A. Stridor

B. Occasional pink-tinged sputum

C. A few basilar lung crackles on the right

D. Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min

Correct Answer: A. Stridor

23. Question

An emergency room nurse is assessing a male client who has sustained a blunt injury to the chest wall. Which of these signs would indicate the presence of a pneumothorax in this client?

A. A low respiratory rate.

B. Diminished breath sounds.

C. The presence of a barrel chest.

D. A sucking sound at the site of injury.

Correct Answer: B. Diminished breath sounds.

24. Question

Nurse Reese is caring for a client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on assessment of this client?

A. Hypocapnia

B. A hyperinflated chest noted on the chest x-ray.

C. Increased oxygen saturation with exercise.

D. A widened diaphragm noted on the chest x-ray.

Correct Answer: B. A hyperinflated chest noted on the chest x-ray.

25. Question

An oxygen delivery system is prescribed for a male client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to deliver a precise oxygen concentration. Which of the following types of oxygen delivery systems would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed?

A. Face tent

B. Venturi mask

C. Aerosol mask

D. Tracheostomy collar

Correct Answer: B. Venturi mask

26. Question

Blessy, a community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community members regarding tuberculosis. The nurse tells the group that one of the first symptoms associated with tuberculosis is:

A. Dyspnea

B. Chest pain

C. A bloody, productive cough.

D. A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum.

Correct Answer: D. A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum

27. Question

A nurse performs an admission assessment on a female client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis. The nurse reviews the result of which diagnosis test that will confirm this diagnosis?

A. Bronchoscopy

B. Sputum culture

C. Chest x-ray

D. Tuberculin skin test

I

Correct Answer: B. Sputum culture

28. Question

A nurse is caring for a male client with emphysema who is receiving oxygen. The nurse assesses the oxygen flow rate to ensure that it does not exceed:

A. 1 L/min

B. 2 L/min

C. 6 L/min

D. 10 L/min

Correct Answer: B. 2 L/min

29. Question

A nurse instructs a female client to use the pursed-lip method of breathing and the client asks the nurse about the purpose of this type of breathing. The nurse responds, knowing that the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing is to:

A. Promote oxygen intake.

B. Strengthen the diaphragm.

C. Strengthen the intercostal muscles.

D. Promote carbon dioxide elimination.

Correct Answer: D. Promote carbon dioxide elimination.

30. Question

A nurse is caring for a male client with acute respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note in the client?

A. Pallor

B. Low arterial PaO2

C. Elevated arterial PaO2

D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct Answer: B. Low arterial PaO2

31. Question

A nurse is preparing to obtain a sputum specimen from a male client. Which of the following nursing actions will facilitate obtaining the specimen?

A. Limiting fluid.

B. Having the client take deep breaths.

C. Asking the client to spit into the collection container.

D. Asking the client to obtain the specimen after eating.

Correct Answer: B. Having the client take deep breaths.

32. Question

Nurse Joy is caring for a client after a bronchoscopy and biopsy. Which of the following signs, if noticed in the client, should be reported immediately to the physician?

A. Dry cough

B. Hematuria

C. Bronchospasm

D. Blood-streaked sputum

Correct Answer: C. Bronchospasm

33. Question

A nurse is suctioning fluids from a male client via a tracheostomy tube. When suctioning, the nurse must limit the suctioning time to a maximum of:

A. 1 minute

B. 5 seconds

C. 10 seconds

D. 30 seconds

Correct Answer: C. 10 seconds

34. Question

A nurse is suctioning fluids from a female client through an endotracheal tube. During the suctioning procedure, the nurse notes on the monitor that the heart rate is decreasing. Which if the following is the appropriate nursing intervention?

A. Continue to suction.

B. Notify the physician immediately.

C. Stop the procedure and reoxygenate the client.

D. Ensure that the suction is limited to 15 seconds.

Correct Answer: C. Stop the procedure and reoxygenate the client.

35. Question

A male adult client is suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. A nurse assesses the client, knowing that which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of pulmonary embolism?

A. Dyspnea

B. Bradypnea

C. Bradycardia

D. Decreased respirations

Correct Answer: A. Dyspnea

36. Question

A slightly obese female client with a history of allergy-induced asthma, hypertension, and mitral valve prolapse is admitted to an acute care facility for elective surgery. The nurse obtains a complete history and performs a thorough physical examination, paying special attention to the cardiovascular and respiratory systems. When percussing the client’s chest wall, the nurse expects to elicit:

A. Resonant sounds.

B. Hyperresonant sounds.

C. Dull sounds.

D. Flat sounds.

Correct Answer: A. Resonant sounds.

37. Question

A male client who weighs 175 lb (79.4 kg) is receiving aminophylline (Aminophylline) (400 mg in 500 ml) at 50 ml/hour. The theophylline level is reported as 6 mcg/ml. The nurse calls the physician who instructs the nurse to change the dosage to 0.45 mg/kg/hour. The nurse should:

A. Question the order because it’s too low.

B. Question the order because it’s too high.

C. Set the pump at 45 ml/hour.

D. Stop the infusion and have the laboratory repeat the theophylline measurement.

Correct Answer: A. Question the order because it’s too low.

38. Question

The nurse is teaching a male client with chronic bronchitis about breathing exercises. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Make inhalation longer than exhalation.

B. Exhale through an open mouth.

C. Use diaphragmatic breathing.

D. Use chest breathing.

Correct Answer: C. Use diaphragmatic breathing.

39. Question

Which phrase is used to describe the volume of air inspired and expired with a normal breath?

A. Total lung capacity

B. Forced vital capacity

C. Tidal volume

D. Residual volume

Correct Answer: C. Tidal volume

40. Question

A male client abruptly sits up in bed, reports having difficulty breathing and has an arterial oxygen saturation of 88%. Which mode of oxygen delivery would most likely reverse the manifestations?

A. Simple mask

B. Non-rebreather mask

C. Face tent

D. Nasal cannula

Correct Answer: B. Non-rebreather mask

41. Question

A female client must take streptomycin for tuberculosis. Before therapy begins, the nurse should instruct the client to notify the physician if a health concern occurs?

A. Impaired color discrimination

B. Increased urinary frequency

C. Decreased hearing acuity

D. Increased appetite

Correct Answer: C. Decreased hearing acuity

42. Question

A male client is asking the nurse a question regarding the Mantoux test for tuberculosis. The nurse should base her response on the fact that the:

A. Area of redness is measured in 3 days and determines whether tuberculosis is present.

B. Skin test doesn’t differentiate between active and dormant tuberculosis infection.

C. Presence of a wheal at the injection site in 2 days indicates active tuberculosis.

D. Test stimulates a reddened response in some clients and requires a second test in 3 months.

Correct Answer: B. Skin test doesn’t differentiate between active and dormant tuberculosis infection.

43. Question

A female adult client has a tracheostomy but doesn’t require continuous mechanical ventilation. When weaning the client from the tracheostomy tube, the nurse initially should plug the opening in the tube for:

A. 15 to 60 seconds.

B. 5 to 20 minutes.

C. 30 to 40 minutes.

D. 45 to 60 minutes.

Correct Answer: B. B. 5 to 20 minutes.

44. Question

Nurse Oliver observes constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber of a closed chest drainage system. What should the nurse conclude?

A. The system is functioning normally.

B. The client has a pneumothorax.

C. The system has an air leak.

D. The chest tube is obstructed.

Correct Answer: C. The system has an air leak.

45. Question

A black client with asthma seeks emergency care for acute respiratory distress. Because of this client’s dark skin, the nurse should assess for cyanosis by inspecting the:

A. Lips

B. Mucous membranes

C. Nail beds

D. Earlobes

Correct Answer: B. Mucous membranes

46. Question

For a male client with an endotracheal (ET) tube, which nursing action is most essential?

A. Auscultating the lungs for bilateral breath sounds.

B. Turning the client from side to side every 2 hours.

C. Monitoring serial blood gas values every 4 hours.

D. Providing frequent oral hygiene.

Correct Answer: A. Auscultating the lungs for bilateral breath sounds.

47. Question

The nurse assesses a male client’s respiratory status. Which observation indicates that the client is experiencing difficulty breathing?

A. Diaphragmatic breathing

B. Use of accessory muscles

C. Pursed-lip breathing

D. Controlled breathing

Correct Answer: B. Use of accessory muscles

48. Question

A female client is undergoing a complete physical examination as a requirement for college. When checking the client’s respiratory status, the nurse observes respiratory excursion to help assess:

A. Lung vibrations

B. Vocal sounds

C. Breath sounds

D. Chest movements.

Correct Answer: D. Chest movements

49. Question

A male client comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset of diarrhea, anorexia, malaise, cough, headache, and recurrent chills. Based on the client’s history and physical findings, the physician suspects Legionnaires’ disease. While awaiting diagnostic test results, the client is admitted to the facility and started on antibiotic therapy. What is the drug of choice for treating Legionnaires’ disease?

A. erythromycin (Erythrocin)

B. rifampin (Rifadin)

C. amantadine (Symmetrel)

D. amphotericin B (Fungizone)

Correct Answer: A. Erythromycin (Erythrocin)

50. Question

A male client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is recovering from a myocardial infarction. Because the client is extremely weak and can’t produce an effective cough, the nurse should monitor closely for:

A. Pleural effusion

B. Pulmonary edema

C. Atelectasis

D. Oxygen toxicity

Correct Answer: C. Atelectasis

SECTION 3

1. Question

An elderly client with pneumonia may appear with which of the following symptoms first?

A. Altered mental status and dehydration

B. Fever and chills

C. Hemoptysis and dyspnea

D. Pleuritic chest pain and cough

Correct Answer: A. Altered mental status and dehydration

2. Question

Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms that occur in the lung parenchyma allows pneumonia to develop?

A. Atelectasis

B. Bronchiectasis

C. Effusion

D. Inflammation

Correct Answer: D. Inflammation

3. Question

A 7-year-old client is brought to the E.R. He’s tachypneic and afebrile and has a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute and a nonproductive cough. He recently had a cold. From his history, the client may have which of the following?

A. Acute asthma

B. Bronchial pneumonia

C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

D. Emphysema

Correct Answer: A. Acute asthma

4. Question

Which of the following assessment findings would help confirm a diagnosis of asthma in a client suspected of having the disorder?

A. Circumoral cyanosis

B. Increased forced expiratory volume

C. Inspiratory and expiratory wheezing

D. Normal breath sounds

Incorrect

Correct Answer: C. Inspiratory and expiratory wheezing

5. Question

Which of the following types of asthma involves an acute asthma attack brought on by an upper respiratory infection?

A. Emotional

B. Extrinsic

C. Intrinsic

D. Mediated

Incorrect

Correct Answer: C. Intrinsic

6. Question

A client with acute asthma showing inspiratory and expiratory wheezes and a decreased expiratory volume should be treated with which of the following classes of medication right away?

A. Beta-adrenergic blockers

B. Bronchodilators

C. Inhaled steroids

D. Oral steroids

Correct Answer: B. Bronchodilators

7. Question

A 19-year-old comes into the emergency department with acute asthma. His respiratory rate is 44 breaths/minute, and he appears to be in acute respiratory distress. Which of the following actions should be taken first?

A. Take a full medication history.

B. Give a bronchodilator by nebulizer.

C. Apply a cardiac monitor to the client.

D. Provide emotional support to the client.

Correct Answer: B. Give a bronchodilator by nebulizer.

8. Question

A 58-year-old client with a 40-year history of smoking one to two packs of cigarettes a day has a chronic cough producing thick sputum, peripheral edema, and cyanotic nail beds. Based on this information, he most likely has which of the following conditions?

A. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

B. Asthma

C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

D. Emphysema

Correct Answer: C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

9. Question

The term “blue bloater” refers to which of the following conditions?

A. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

B. Asthma

C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

D. Emphysema

Correct Answer: C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

10. Question

The term “pink puffer” refers to the client with which of the following conditions?

A. ARDS

B. Asthma

C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

D. Emphysema

Correct

Correct Answer: D. Emphysema

11. Question

A 66-year-old client has marked dyspnea at rest, is thin, and uses accessory muscles to breathe. He’s tachypneic, with a prolonged expiratory phase. He has no cough. He leans forward with his arms braced on his knees to support his chest and shoulders for breathing. This client has symptoms of which of the following respiratory disorders?

A. ARDS

B. Asthma

C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

D. Emphysema

Correct Answer: D. Emphysema

12. Question

It’s highly recommended that clients with asthma, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema have Pneumovax and flu vaccinations for which of the following reasons?

A. All clients are recommended to have these vaccines.

B. These vaccines produce bronchodilation and improve oxygenation.

C. These vaccines help reduce the tachypnea these clients experience.

D. Respiratory infections can cause severe hypoxia and possibly death in these clients.

Correct Answer: D. Respiratory infections can cause severe hypoxia and possibly death in these clients.

13. Question

Exercise has which of the following effects on clients with asthma, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema?

A. It enhances cardiovascular fitness.

B. It improves respiratory muscle strength.

C. It reduces the number of acute attacks.

D. It worsens respiratory function and is discouraged.

Correct Answer: A. It enhances cardiovascular fitness.

14. Question

Clients with chronic obstructive bronchitis are given diuretic therapy. Which of the following reasons best explains why?

A. Reducing fluid volume reduces oxygen demand.

B. Reducing fluid volume improves clients’ mobility.

C. Restricting fluid volume reduces sputum production.

D. Reducing fluid volume improves respiratory function.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: A. Reducing fluid volume reduces oxygen demand.

15. Question

A 69-year-old client appears thin and cachectic. He’s short of breath at rest and his dyspnea increases with the slightest exertion. His breath sounds are diminished even with deep inspiration. These signs and symptoms fit which of the following conditions?

A. ARDS

B. Asthma

C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

D. Emphysema

Correct Answer: D. Emphysema

16. Question

A client with emphysema should receive only 1 to 3 L/minute of oxygen if needed, or he may lose his hypoxic drive. Which of the following statements is correct about hypoxic drive?

A. The client doesn’t notice he needs to breathe.

B. The client breathes only when his oxygen levels climb above a certain point.

C. The client breathes only when his oxygen levels dip below a certain point.

D. The client breathes only when his carbon dioxide level dips below a certain point.

Incorrect

Correct Answer: C. The client breathes only when his oxygen levels dip below a certain point.

17. Question

Teaching for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) should include which of the following topics?

A. How to have his wife learn to listen to his lungs with a stethoscope from Wal-Mart.

B. How to increase his oxygen therapy.

C. How to treat respiratory infections without going to the physician.

D. How to recognize the signs of an impending respiratory infection.

Correct Answer: D. How to recognize the signs of an impending respiratory infection.

18. Question

Which of the following respiratory disorders is most common in the first 24 to 48 hours after surgery?

A. Atelectasis

B. Bronchitis

C. Pneumonia

D. Pneumothorax

Correct Answer: A. Atelectasis

19. Question

Which of the following measures can reduce or prevent the incidence of atelectasis in a postoperative client?

A. Chest physiotherapy

B. Mechanical ventilation

C. Reducing oxygen requirements

D. Use of an incentive spirometer.

Correct Answer: D. Use of an incentive spirometer.

20. Question

Emergency treatment of a client in status asthmaticus includes which of the following medications?

A. Inhaled beta-adrenergic agents

B. Inhaled corticosteroids

C. I.V. beta-adrenergic agents

D. Oral corticosteroids

Correct Answer: A. Inhaled beta-adrenergic agents

21. Question

Which of the following treatment goals is best for the client with status asthmaticus?

A. Avoiding intubation.

B. Determining the cause of the attack.

C. Improving exercise tolerance.

D. Reducing secretions.

Correct Answer: A. Avoiding intubation

22. Question

Dani was given Dilaudid for pain. She’s sleeping and her respiratory rate is 4 breaths/minute. If action isn’t taken quickly, she might have which of the following reactions?

A. Asthma attack

B. Respiratory arrest

C. Improve cardiac output

D. Constipation

Correct Answer: B. Respiratory arrest

23. Question

Which of the following additional assessment data should immediately be gathered to determine the status of a client with a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute?

A. Arterial blood gas (ABG) and breath sounds.

B. Level of consciousness and a pulse oximetry value.

C. Breath sounds and reflexes.

D. Pulse oximetry value and heart sounds.

Correct Answer: B. Level of consciousness and a pulse oximetry value.

24. Question

A client is in danger of respiratory arrest following the administration of a narcotic analgesic. An arterial blood gas value is obtained. The nurse would expect PaCO2 to be which of the following values?

A. 15 mm Hg

B. 30 mm Hg

C. 40 mm Hg

D. 80 mm Hg

Correct Answer: D. 80 mm Hg

25. Question

A client has started a new drug for hypertension. Thirty minutes after he takes the drug, he develops chest tightness and becomes short of breath and tachypnea. He has a decreased level of consciousness. These signs indicate which of the following conditions?

A. Asthma attack

B. Pulmonary embolism

C. Respiratory failure

D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Correct Answer: C. Respiratory Failure

26. Question

Emergency treatment for a client with impending anaphylaxis secondary to hypersensitivity to a drug should include which of the following actions first?

A. Administering oxygen.

B. Inserting an I.V. catheter.

C. Obtaining a complete blood count (CBC).

D. Taking vital signs.

Correct Answer: A. Administering oxygen.

27. Question

Following the initial care of a client with asthma and impending anaphylaxis from hypersensitivity to a drug, the nurse should take which of the following steps next?

A. Administer beta-adrenergic blockers.

B. Administer bronchodilators.

C. Obtain serum electrolyte levels.

D. Have the client lie flat in the bed.

Correct Answer: B. Administer bronchodilators.

28. Question

A client’s ABG results are as follows: pH: 7.16; PaCO2 80 mm Hg; PaO2 46 mm Hg; HCO3- 24 mEq/L; SaO2 81%. This ABG result represents which of the following conditions?

A. Metabolic acidosis

B. Metabolic alkalosis

C. Respiratory acidosis

D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct Answer: C. Respiratory acidosis

29. Question

A nurse plans care for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, knowing that the client is most likely to experience what type of acid-base imbalance?

A. Respiratory acidosis

B. Respiratory alkalosis

C. Metabolic acidosis

D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct Answer: A. Respiratory acidosis

30. Question

A nurse is caring for a client who is on a mechanical ventilator. Blood gas results indicate a pH of 7.50 and a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg. The nurse has determined that the client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis. Which laboratory value would most likely be noted in this condition?

A. Sodium level of 145 mEq/L

B. Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L

C. Magnesium level of 2.0 mg/L

D. Phosphorus level of 4.0 mg/dl

Correct Answer: B. Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L

SECTION 4 

1. The nurse is caring for a male client with a chest tube. If the chest drainage system is accidentally disconnected, what should the nurse plan to do?  

A. 

Place the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile saline.

B. 

Apply an occlusive dressing and notify the physician.

C. 

Clamp the chest tube immediately.

D. 

Secure the chest tube with tape.

Correct Answer

A. Place the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile saline.

2. A male elderly client is admitted to an acute care facility with influenza. The nurse monitors the client closely for complications. What is the most common complication of influenza?

A. Septicemia

B. Pneumonia

C. Meningitis

D. Pulmonary edema

Correct Answer

B. Pneumonia

3. A female client has a tracheostomy but doesn’t require continuous mechanical ventilation. When weaning the client from the tracheostomy tube, the nurse initially should plug the opening in the tube for:

A. 5 to 60 seconds.

B. 5 to 20 minutes.

C. 30 to 40 minutes.

D. 45 to 60 minutes.

Correct Answer

B. 5 to 20 minutes.

4. Gina, a home health nurse, is visiting a home care client with advanced lung cancer. Upon assessing the client, the nurse discovers wheezing, bradycardia, and a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/minute. These signs are associated with which condition?

A. Hypoxia

B. Delirium

C. Hyperventilation

D. Semiconsciousness

Correct Answer

A. Hypoxia

5. A male client with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops respiratory acidosis as a result of reduced alveolar ventilation. Which combination of arterial blood gas (ABG) values confirms respiratory acidosis?

A. PH 5.0; PaCO2 30 mm Hg

B. PH 7.40; PaCO2 35 mm Hg

C. PH 7.35; PaCO2 40 mm Hg

D. PH 7.25; PaCO2 50 mm Hg

Correct Answer

D. PH 7.25; PaCO2 50 mm Hg

6. A female client with interstitial lung disease is prescribed prednisone (Deltasone) to control inflammation. During client teaching, the nurse stresses the importance of taking prednisone exactly as prescribed and cautions against discontinuing the drug abruptly. A client who discontinues prednisone abruptly may experience:

A. Hyperglycemia and glycosuria.

B. Acute adrenocortical insufficiency.

C. GI bleeding.

D. Restlessness and seizures.

Correct Answer

B. Acute adrenocortical insufficiency.

7. A male client is admitted to the health care facility for treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which nursing diagnosis is most important for this client?

A. Activity intolerance related to fatigue.

B. Anxiety related to actual threat to health status.

C. Risk for infection related to retained secretions.

D. Impaired gas exchange related to airflow obstruction.

Correct Answer

D. Impaired gas exchange related to airflow obstruction.

8. A male client abruptly sits up in bed, reports having difficulty breathing and have an arterial oxygen saturation of 88%. Which mode of oxygen delivery would most likely reverse the manifestations?

A. Simple mask

B. Non-rebreather mask

C. Face tent

D. Nasal cannula

Correct Answer

B. Non-rebreather mask

9. A male adult client with cystic fibrosis is admitted to an acute care facility with an acute respiratory infection. Prescribed respiratory treatment includes chest physiotherapy. When should the nurse perform this procedure?

A. Immediately before a meal

B. At least 2 hours after a meal

C. When bronchospasms occur

D. When secretions have mobilized

Correct Answer

B. At least 2 hours after a meal

10. On arrival at the intensive care unit, a critically ill female client suffers respiratory arrest and is placed on mechanical ventilation. The physician orders pulse oximetry to monitor the client’s arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) noninvasively. Which vital sign abnormality may alter pulse oximetry values?

A. Fever

B. Tachypnea

C. Tachycardia

D. Hypotension

Correct Answer

D. Hypotension

11. The nurse is caring for a male client who recently underwent a tracheostomy. The first priority when caring for a client with a tracheostomy is:

A. Helping him communicate

B. Keeping his airway patent

C. Encouraging him to perform activities of daily living

D. Preventing him from developing an infection

Correct Answer

B. Keeping his airway patent

12. For a male client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which nursing intervention would help maintain a patent airway?

A. Restricting fluid intake to 1,000 ml/day

B. Enforcing absolute bed rest

C. Teaching the client how to perform controlled coughing

D. Administering prescribed sedatives regularly and in large amounts

Correct Answer

C. Teaching the client how to perform controlled coughing

13. The amount of air inspired and expired with each breath is called:

A. Tidal volume.

B. Residual volume.

C. Vital capacity.

D. Dead-space volume.

Correct Answer

A. Tidal volume.

14. A male client with pneumonia develops respiratory failure and has a partial pressure of arterial oxygen of 55 mm Hg. He’s placed on mechanical ventilation with a fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) of 0.9. The nursing goal should be to reduce the FIO2 to no greater than:

A. 0.21

B. 0.35

C. 0.5

D. 0.7

Correct Answer

C. 0.5

15. Nurse Mickey is administering a purified protein derivative (PPD) test to a homeless client. Which of the following statements concerning PPD testing is true?

A. A positive reaction indicates that the client has active tuberculosis (TB).

B. A positive reaction indicates that the client has been exposed to the disease.

C. A negative reaction always excludes the diagnosis of TB.

D. The PPD can be read within 12 hours after the injection.

Correct Answer

B. A positive reaction indicates that the client has been exposed to the disease.

16. Nurse Murphy administers albuterol (Proventil), as prescribed to a client with emphysema. Which finding indicates that the drug is producing a therapeutic effect?

A. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute.

B. Dilated and reactive pupils.

C. Urine output of 40 ml/hour.

D. Heart rate of 100 beats/minute.

Correct Answer

A. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute.

17. What is the normal pH range for arterial blood?

A. 7 to 7.49

B. 7.35 to 7.45

C. 7.50 to 7.60

D. 7.55 to 7.65

Correct Answer

B. 7.35 to 7.45

18. Before weaning a male client from a ventilator, which assessment parameter is most important for the nurse to review?

A. Fluid intake for the last 24 hours.

B. Baseline arterial blood gas (ABG) levels.

C. Prior outcomes of weaning.

D. Electrocardiogram (ECG) results.

Correct Answer

B. Baseline arterial blood gas (ABG) levels.

19. Which of the following would be most appropriate for a male client with an arterial blood gas (ABG) of pH 7.5, PaCO2 26 mm Hg, O2 saturation 96%, HCO3 24 mEq/L, and PaO2 94 mm Hg?

A. Administer a prescribed decongestant.

B. Instruct the client to breathe into a paper bag.

C. Offer the client fluids frequently.

D. Administer prescribed supplemental oxygen.

Correct Answer

B. Instruct the client to breathe into a paper bag.

20. A female client is receiving supplemental oxygen. When determining the effectiveness of oxygen therapy, which arterial blood gas value is most important?

A. PH

B. Bicarbonate (HCO3–)

C. Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)

D. Partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2)

Correct Answer

C. Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)

21. Nurse Julia is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy and temperature of 103° F (39.4° C). Which of the following interventions will most likely lower the client’s arterial blood oxygen saturation?

A. Endotracheal suctioning.

B. Encouragement of coughing.

C. Use of a cooling blanket.

D. Incentive spirometry.

Correct Answer

A. Endotracheal suctioning.

22. For a male client who has a chest tube connected to a closed water-seal drainage system, the nurse should include which action in the plan of care?

A. Measuring and documenting the drainage in the collection chamber.

B. Maintaining continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.

C. Keeping the collection chamber at chest level.

D. Stripping the chest tube every hour.

Correct Answer

A. Measuring and documenting the drainage in the collection chamber.

23. Nurse Eve formulates a nursing diagnosis of Activity intolerance related to inadequate oxygenation and dyspnea for a client with chronic bronchitis. To minimize this problem, the nurse instructs the client to avoid conditions that increase oxygen demands. Such conditions include:

A. Drinking more than 1,500 ml of fluid daily.

B. Being overweight.

C. Eating a high-protein snack at bedtime.

D. Eating more than three large meals a day.

Correct Answer

B. Being overweight.

24. A black male client with asthma seeks emergency care for acute respiratory distress. Because of this client’s dark skin, the nurse should assess for cyanosis by inspecting the:

A. Lips

B. Mucous membranes

C. Nail beds

D. Earlobes

Correct Answer

B. Mucous membranes

25. A female client with asthma is receiving a theophylline preparation to promote bronchodilation. Because of the risk of drug toxicity, the nurse must monitor the client’s serum theophylline level closely. The nurse knows that the therapeutic theophylline concentration falls within which range?

A. 1 to 2 mcg/ml

B. 2 to 5 mcg/ml

C. 5 to 10 mcg/ml

D. 10 to 20 mcg/ml

Correct Answer

D. 10 to 20 mcg/ml

26. A male client is to receive I.V. vancomycin (Vancocin). When preparing to administer this drug, the nurse should keep in mind that:

A. Vancomycin should be infused over 60 to 90 minutes in a large volume of fluid.

B. Vancomycin may cause irreversible neutropenia.

C. Vancomycin should be administered rapidly in a large volume of fluid.

D. Vancomycin should be administered over 1 to 2 minutes as an I.V. bolus.

Correct Answer

A. Vancomycin should be infused over 60 to 90 minutes in a large volume of fluid.

27. Before seeing a newly assigned female client with respiratory alkalosis, the nurse quickly reviews the client’s medical history. Which condition is a predisposing factor for respiratory alkalosis?

A. Myasthenia gravis.

B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus.

C. Extreme anxiety.

D. Narcotic overdose.

Correct Answer

C. Extreme anxiety.

28. At 11 p.m., a male client is admitted to the emergency department. He has a respiratory rate of 44 breaths/minute. He’s anxious, and wheezes are audible. The client is immediately given oxygen by face mask and methylprednisolone (Depo-Medrol) I.V. At 11:30 p.m., the client’s arterial blood oxygen saturation is 86% and he’s still wheezing. The nurse should plan to administer:

A. Alprazolam (Xanax)

B. Propranolol (Inderal)

C. Morphine

D. Albuterol (Proventil)

Correct Answer

D. Albuterol (Proventil)

29. Pulmonary disease (COPD), which nursing action best promotes adequate gas exchange?

A. Encouraging the client to drink three glasses of fluid daily.

B. Keeping the client in semi-Fowler’s position.

C. Using a high-flow Venturi mask to deliver oxygen as prescribed.

D. Administering a sedative as prescribed.

Correct Answer

C. Using a high-flow Venturi mask to deliver oxygen as prescribed.

30. Nurse Joana is teaching a client with emphysema how to perform pursed-lip breathing. The client asks the nurse to explain the purpose of this breathing technique. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

A. It increases inspiratory muscle strength.

B. It decreases use of accessory breathing muscles.

C. It prolongs the inspiratory phase of respiration.

D. It helps prevent early airway collapse.

Correct Answer

D. It helps prevent early airway collapse.

SECTION 5

1.A male patient has a sucking stab wound to the chest. Which action should the nurse take first?

ADrawing blood for a hematocrit and hemoglobin level

BApplying a dressing over the wound and taping it on three sides

CPreparing a chest tube insertion tray

DPreparing to start an I.V. line

B

2.A male patient is admitted to the health care facility for treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which nursing diagnosis is most important for this patient?

AActivity intolerance related to fatigue

BAnxiety related to actual threat to health status

CRisk for infection related to retained secretions

DImpaired gas exchange related to airflow obstruction

D

3.A male adult patient hospitalized for treatment of a pulmonary embolism develops respiratory alkalosis. Which clinical findings commonly accompany respiratory alkalosis?

A Nausea or vomiting

BAbdominal pain or diarrhea

CHallucinations or tinnitus

DLightheadedness or parenthesis 

D

4.Before administering ephedrine, Nurse Tony assesses the patient’s history. Because of ephedrine’s central nervous system (CNS) effects, it is not recommended for:

A Patients with an acute asthma attack

B Patients with narcolepsy

C Patients under age 6

D Elderly patients

D

5.A female patient suffers adult respiratory distress syndrome as a consequence of shock. The patient’s condition deteriorates rapidly, and endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation are initiated. When the high pressure alarm on the mechanical ventilator sounds, the nurse starts to check for the cause. Which condition triggers the high pressure alarm?

A Kinking of the ventilator tubing

B A disconnected ventilator tube

C An endotracheal cuff leak

D A change in the oxygen concentration without resetting the oxygen level alarm

A

6. A male adult patient on mechanical ventilation is receiving pancuronium bromide (Pavulon), 0.01 mg/kg I.V. as needed. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient needs another pancuronium dose?

A Leg movement

B Finger movement

C Lip movement

D Fighting the ventilator

D

7.On auscultation, which finding suggests a right pneumothorax?

A Bilateral inspiratory and expiratory crackles

B Absence of breaths sound in the right thorax

C Inspiratory wheezes in the right thorax

D Bilateral pleural friction rub

B

8.Rhea, confused and short breath, is brought to the emergency department by a family member. The medical history reveals chronic bronchitis and hypertension. To learn more about the current respiratory problem, the doctor orders a chest x-ray and arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis. When reviewing the ABG report, the nurses sees many abbreviations. What does a lowercase “a” in ABG value present?

A Acid-base balance

B Arterial Blood

C Arterial oxygen saturation

D Alveol

B.

9. Nurse Ruth assessing a patient for tracheal displacement should know that the trachea will deviate toward the:

A Contralateral side in a simple pneumothorax

B Affected side in a hemothorax

C Affected side in a tension pneumothorax

D Contralateral side in hemothorax

D. 

10. After undergoing a left pneumonectomy, a female patient has a chest tube in place for drainage. When caring for this patient, the nurse must:

A Monitor fluctuations in the water-seal chamber

B Clamp the chest tube once every shift

C Encourage coughing and deep breathing

D Milk the chest tube every 2 hours

C

11. For a patient with advance chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which nursing action best promotes adequate gas exchange?

A Encouraging the patient to drink three glasses of fluid daily

B Keeping the patient in semi-fowler’s position

C Using a high-flow venturi mask to deliver oxygen as prescribe

D Administering a sedative, as prescribe

C

12. A male patient’s X-ray result reveals bilateral white-outs, indicating adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). This syndrome results from:

A Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

B Respiratory alkalosis

C Increased pulmonary capillary permeability

D Renal failure

C

13. Nurse Lei caring for a client with a pneumothorax and who has had a chest tube inserted notes continues gentle bubbling in the suction control chamber. What action is appropriate?

A Do nothing, because this is an expected finding

B Immediately clamp the chest tube and notify the physician

C Check for an air leak because the bubbling should be intermittent

D Increase the suction pressure so that the bubbling becomes vigorous

A

14 .Nurse Maureen has assisted a physician with the insertion of a chest tube. The nurse monitors the client and notes fluctuation of the fluid level in the water seal chamber after the tube is inserted. Based on this assessment, which action would be appropriate?

A Inform the physician

B Continue to monitor the client

C Reinforce the occlusive dressing

D Encourage the client to deep-breathe

B

15. Nurse Reynolds caring for a client with a chest tube turns the client to the side, and the chest tube accidentally disconnects. The initial nursing action is to:

A Call the physician

B Place the tube in bottle of sterile water

C Immediately replace the chest tube system

D Place a sterile dressing over the disconnection site

B

16.A nurse is assisting a physician with the removal of a chest tube. The nurse should instruct the client to:

A Exhale slowly

B Stay very still

C Inhale and exhale quickly

D Perform the Valsalva maneuver

D

17. While changing the tapes on a tracheostomy tube, the male client coughs and tube is dislodged. The initial nursing action is to:

A Call the physician to reinsert the tube

B Grasp the retention sutures to spread the opening

C Call the respiratory therapy department to reinsert the tracheotomy

D Cover the tracheostomy site with a sterile dressing to prevent infection

B

18. Nurse Oliver is caring for a client immediately after removal of the endotracheal tube. The nurse reports which of the following signs immediately if experienced by the client?

A Stridor

B Occasional pink-tinged sputum

C A few basilar lung crackles on the right

D Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min

A

19. An emergency room nurse is assessing a male client who has sustained a blunt injury to the chest wall. Which of these signs would indicate the presence of a pneumothorax in this client?

A A low respiratory rate

B Diminished breath sounds

C The presence of a barrel chest

D A sucking sound at the site of injury

B

20.Nurse Reese is caring for a client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on assessment of this client?

A Hypocapnia

B A hyperinflated chest noted on the chest x-ray

C Increased oxygen saturation with exercise

D A widened diaphragm noted on the chest x-ray

B

21.An oxygen delivery system is prescribed for a male client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to deliver a precise oxygen concentration. Which of the following types of oxygen delivery systems would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed?

A Face tent

B Venturi mask

C Aerosol mask

D Tracheostomy collar

B

22.Blessy, a community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community members regarding tuberculosis. The nurse tells the group that one of the first symptoms associated with tuberculosis is:

A Dyspnea

B Chest pain

C A bloody, productive cough

D A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum

D

23. A nurse performs an admission assessment on a female client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis. The nurse reviews the result of which diagnosis test that will confirm this diagnosis?

A Bronchoscopy

B Sputum culture

C Chest x-ray

D Tuberculin skin test

B

23.A nurse is caring for a male client with emphysema who is receiving oxygen. The nurse assesses the oxygen flow rate to ensure that it does not exceed:

A 1 L/min

B 2 L/min

C 6 L/min

D 10 L/min

B

24. A nurse instructs a female client to use the pursed-lip method of breathing and the client asks the nurse about the purpose of this type of breathing. The nurse responds, knowing that the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing is to:

A Promote oxygen intake

B Strengthen the diaphragm

C Strengthen the intercostal muscles

D Promote carbon dioxide elimination

D

25. A nurse is caring for a male client with acute respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note in the client?

A Pallor

B Low arterial PaO2

C Elevated arterial PaO2

D Decreased respiratory rate

B

26. A nurse is preparing to obtain a sputum specimen from a male client. Which of the following nursing actions will facilitate obtaining the specimen?

ALimiting fluid

BHaving the client take deep breaths

CAsking the client to spit into the collection container

DAsking the client to obtain the specimen after eating

B

27. Nurse Joy is caring for a client after a bronchoscopy and biopsy. Which of the following signs, if noticed in the client, should be reported immediately to the physician?

A Dry cough

B Hematuria

CBronchospasm

DBlood-streaked sputum

C

28. A nurse is suctioning fluids from a male client via a tracheostomy tube. When suctioning, the nurse must limit the suctioning time to a maximum of:

A1 minute

B5 seconds

C10 seconds

D30 seconds

C

29. A nurse is suctioning fluids from a female client through an endotracheal tube. During the suctioning procedure, the nurse notes on the monitor that the heart rate is decreasing. Which if the following is the appropriate nursing intervention?

AContinue to suction

BNotify the physician immediately

C Stop the procedure and reoxygenate the client

DEnsure that the suction is limited to 15 seconds

C

30. A male adult client is suspected of having a pulmonary embolus. A nurse assesses the client, knowing that which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of pulmonary embolism?

A Dyspnea

B Bradypnea

C Bradycardia

D Decreased respirations

A

31. A slightly obese female client with a history of allergy-induced asthma, hypertension, and mitral valve prolapse is admitted to an acute care facility for elective surgery. The nurse obtains a complete history and performs a thorough physical examination, paying special attention to the cardiovascular and respiratory systems. When percussing the client’s chest wall, the nurse expects to elicit:

A Resonant sounds

B Hyperresonant sounds

C Dull sounds

D Flat sounds

32. Which phrase is used to describe the volume of air inspired and expired with a normal breath?

Tidal volume

33. A male client abruptly sits up in bed, reports having difficulty breathing and has an arterial oxygen saturation of 88%. Which mode of oxygen delivery would most likely reverse the manifestations?

A Simple mask

B Non-rebreather mask

C Face tent

D Nasal cannula

B

34. A female client must take streptomycin for tuberculosis. Before therapy begins, the nurse should instruct the client to notify the physician if which health concern occurs?

A Impaired color discrimination

B Increased urinary frequency

C Decreased hearing acuity

D Increased appetite

C

35. A male client is asking the nurse a question regarding the Mantoux test for tuberculosis. The nurse should base her response on the fact that the:

A Area of redness is measured in 3 days and determines whether tuberculosis is present.

B Skin test doesn’t differentiate between active and dormant tuberculosis infection.

C Presence of a wheal at the injection site in 2 days indicates active tuberculosis.

D Test stimulates a reddened response in some clients and requires a second test in 3 months.

B

36. A female adult client has a tracheostomy but doesn’t require continuous mechanical ventilation. When weaning the client from the tracheostomy tube, the nurse initially should plug the opening in the tube for:

A15 to 60 seconds

B 5 to 20 minutes

C30 to 40 minutes

D 45 to 60 minutes

B

37. Nurse Oliver observes constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber of a closed chest drainage system. What should the nurse conclude?

AThe system is functioning normally

B The client has a pneumothorax

C The system has an air leak

D The chest tube is obstructed

C

38. A black client with asthma seeks emergency care for acute respiratory distress. Because of this client’s dark skin, the nurse should assess for cyanosis by inspecting the:

A Lips

B Mucous membranes

C Nail beds

D Earlobes

B

39. For a male client with an endotracheal (ET) tube, which nursing action is most essential?

A Auscultating the lungs for bilateral breath sounds

B Turning the client from side to side every 2 hours

C Monitoring serial blood gas values every 4 hours

D Providing frequent oral hygiene

A

40. A male client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is recovering from a myocardial infarction. Because the client is extremely weak and can’t produce an effective cough, the nurse should monitor closely for:

A Pleural effusion

B Pulmonary edema

C Atelectasis

D Oxygen toxicity

C

41. The nurse in charge is teaching a client with emphysema how to perform pursed-lip breathing. The client asks the nurse to explain the purpose of this breathing technique. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

A It helps prevent early airway collapse

B It increases inspiratory muscle strength

C It decreases use of accessory breathing muscles

D It prolongs the inspiratory phase of respiration

A

42. A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops respiratory acidosis as a result of reduced alveolar ventilation. Which combination of arterial blood gas (ABG) values confirms respiratory acidosis?

A pH, 5.0; PaCO2 30 mm Hg

B pH, 7.40; PaCO2 35 mm Hg

C pH, 7.35; PaCO2 40 mm Hg

D pH, 7.25; PaCO2 50 mm Hg

D

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