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Mcq On Medical Surgical Nursing

Today, we shall be looking at medical-surgical nursing questions and answers. The aim is to prepare us ahead of any professional exam.

1. The nurse counts an adult’s apical heartbeat at 110 beats per minute. The nurse describes this as:

  1. asystole.
  2. bigeminy.
  3. tachycardia.
  4. bradycardia.

2. A client has an elevated AST 24 hours following chest pain and shortness of breath. This is suggestive of which of the following?

  1. Gallbladder disease
  2. Liver disease
  3. Myocardial infarction
  4. Skeletal muscle injury

3. An adult has a coagulation time of 20 minutes. The nurse should observe the client for which of the following?

  1. Blood clots
  2. Ecchymotic areas
  3. Jaundice
  4. Infection

4. A prothrombin time test should be performed regularly on persons who are taking which medication?

  1. Heparin
  2. Warfarin
  3. Phenobarbital
  4. Digoxin

5. Which prothrombin time value would be considered normal for a client who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin)?

  1. 12 seconds
  2. 20 seconds
  3. 60 seconds
  4. 98 seconds

6. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin. What drug should be readily available? 1. Vitamin K

  1. Caffeine
  2. Calcium gluconate
  3. Protamine sulfate

7. An adult who is receiving heparin asks the nurse why it cannot be given by mouth. The nurse responds that heparin is given parenterally because:

  1. it is destroyed by gastric secretions.
  2. it irritates the gastric mucosa.
  3. it irritates the intestinal lining.
  4. therapeutic levels can be achieved more quickly.

8. An adult who is admitted for a cardiac catheterization asks the nurse if she will be asleep during the cardiac catheterization. What is the best initial response for the nurse to make?

  1. “You will be given a general anesthesia.”
  2. “You will be sedated but not asleep.”
  3. “The doctor will give you an anesthetic if you
    are having too much pain.”
  4. “Why do you want to be asleep?”

9. During the admission interview, a client who is admitted for a cardiac catheterization says, “Every time I eat shrimp I get a rash.” What action is essential for the nurse to take at this time?

  1. Notify the physician.
  2. Ask the client if she gets a rash from any other
    foods.
  3. Instruct the dietary department not to give the
    client shrimp.
  4. Teach the client the dangers of eating shrimp and other shellfish.

10. The nurse is preparing a client for a cardiac catheterization. Which action would the nurse expect to take?

  1. Administer a radioisotope as ordered.
  2. Give the client a cleansing enema.
  3. Locate and mark peripheral pulses.
  4. Encourage high fluid intake before the test.

11. A young adult with a history of rheumatic fever as a child is to have a cardiac catheterization. She asks the nurse why she must have a cardiac catheterization. The nurse’s response
is based on the understanding that cardiac catheterization can accomplish all of the following EXCEPT:

  1. assessing heart structures.
  2. determining oxygen levels in the heart chambers.
  3. evaluating cardiac output.
  4. obtaining a biopsy specimen.

12. When a client returns from undergoing a cardiac catheterization, it is most essential for the nurse to:

  1. check peripheral pulses.
  2. maintain NPO.
  3. apply heat to the insertion site.
  4. start range of motion exercises immediately.

13. A male client with angina pectoris has been having an increased number of episodes of pain recently. He is admitted for observation. During the admission interview, he tells the nurse that he has been having chest pain during the last week. Which statement by the client would be of greatest concern to the nurse?

  1. “I had chest pain while I was walking in the snow on Thursday.”
  2. “We went out for a big dinner to celebrate my wife’s birthday, but I couldn’t enjoy it because I got the pain before we got home from the restaurant”
  3. “I had chest pain yesterday while I was sitting in the living room watching television.”
  4. “I felt pain all the way down my left arm after I was playing with my grandson on Monday.”

14. The nurse responds to the call light of a client who has a history of angina pectoris. He tells the nurse that he has just taken a nitroglycerin tablet sublingually for anginal pain. What action should the nurse take next?

  1. If the pain does not subside within five minutes, place a second tablet under his tongue
  2. Position him with head lower than feet
  3. Administer a narcotic as needed (PRN) for pain if he still has pain in 10 minutes
  4. Call his physician and alert the code team for possible intervention.

15. The nurse is teaching an adult who has angina about taking nitroglycerin. The nurse tells him he will know the nitroglycerin is effective when:

  1. he experiences tingling under the tongue.
  2. his pulse rate increases.
  3. his pain subsides.
  4. his activity tolerance increases.

16. A client with angina will have to make lifestyle modifications. Which of the following statements by the client would indicate that he understands the necessary modifications in lifestyle to prevent angina attacks?

  1. “I know that I will need to eat less, so I will only eat one meal a day.”
  2. “I will need to stay in bed all the time so I won’t have the pain.”
  3. “I’ll stop what I’m doing whenever I have pain and take a pill.”
  4. “I will need to walk more slowly and rest frequently to avoid the angina.”

17. A client who has been treated for angina is discharged in stable condition. At a clinic visit, he tells the nurse he has anginal pain when he has sexual intercourse with his wife. What is the best response for the nurse to make?

  1. “Do you have ambivalent feelings toward your wife?”
  2. “Many persons with angina have less pain when their partner assumes the top position.”
  3. “Be sure that you attempt intercourse only when you are well rested and relaxed.”
  4. “You might try having a cocktail before sexual activity to help you relax.”

18. A low-sodium, low-cholesterol, weight-reducing diet is prescribed for an adult with heart disease. The nurse knows that he understands his diet when he chooses which of the following meals?

  1. Baked skinless chicken and mashed potatoes
  2. Stir-fried Chinese vegetables and rice
  3. Tuna fish salad with celery sticks
  4. Grilled lean steak with carrots

19. An adult client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided congestive heart failure. Which assessment finding would most likely be present?

1. Distended neck veins

  1. Dyspnea
  2. Hepatomegaly
  3. Pitting edema

20. Digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix) are ordered for a client who has congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse also expect to be ordered for this client?

  1. Potassium
  2. Calcium
  3. Aspirin
  4. Coumadin

21. When the nurse is about to administer digoxin to a client, the client says, “I think I need to see the eye doctor. Things seem to look kind of green today.” The nurse takes his vital signs, which are blood pressure = 150/94, pulse = 60 bpm, and respirations = 28. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse to take?

  1. Administer the medication and record the findings on his chart
  2. Withhold the digoxin and report to the charge nurse
  3. Request an appointment with the ophthalmologist
  4. Reassure the client that he is having a normal reaction to his medication

22. An adult client is admitted to the hospital with peripheral vascular disease of the lower extremities. He has several ischemic ulcers on each ankle and lower leg area. Other parts of his skin are shiny and taut with loss of hair. A primary nursing goal for this client should be to do which of the following?

  1. Increase activity tolerance
  2. Relieve anxiety
  3. Protect from injury
  4. Help build a positive body image

23. An adult client who has peripheral vascular disease of the lower extremities was observed smoking in the waiting area. What is the most appropriate response for the nurse to make regarding the client’s smoking?

  1. “Smoking is not allowed for patients with blood diseases.”
  2. “Smoking causes the blood vessels in your legs to constrict and reduces the blood supply.”
  3. “Smoking increases your blood pressure and strains your heart.”
  4. “Smoking causes your body to be under greater stress”

24. An adult client with peripheral vascular disease tells the nurse he is afraid his left leg is not improving and may need to be amputated. How should the nurse respond?

  1. “You and your wife should discuss your feelings before surgery.”
  2. “You sound concerned about your leg and possible surgery.”
  3. “It is better to have an amputation when the ulcers are not improving.”
  4. “You don’t need to be afraid of surgery.”

25. An adult is diagnosed with hypertension. He is prescribed chlorothiazide (Diuril) 500 mg PO. What nursing instruction is essential for him?

1. Drink at least two quarts of liquid daily.

  1. Avoid hard cheeses.
  2. Drink orange juice or eat a banana daily.
  3. Do not take aspirin

26. A low-sodium diet has been ordered for an adult client. The nurse knows that the client understands his low-sodium diet when the client selects which menu?

  1. Tossed salad, carrot sticks, and steak
  2. Baked chicken, mashed potatoes, and green beans
  3. Hot dog, roll, and coleslaw
  4. Chicken noodle soup, applesauce, and cottage cheese

27. A female client is admitted to the hospital with obesity and deep vein thrombophlebitis (DVT) of the right leg. She weighs 275 pounds. Which of the following factors is least related to her diagnosis?

  1. She has been taking oral estrogens for the last three years.
  2. She smokes two packs of cigarettes daily.
  3. Her right femur was fractured recently.
  4. She is 30 years old.

28. Which assessment finding would most likely indicate that a client has thrombophlebitis in the leg?

  1. Diminished pedal pulses
  2. Color changes in the extremities when elevated
  3. Red, shiny skin
  4. Coolness and pallor in the leg

29. What should be included in the teaching plan for an adult who has hypertension?

  1. Reduce dietary calcium.
  2. Avoid aerobic exercise.
  3. Reduce alcohol intake.
  4. Limit fluid intake.

30. The nurse is caring for an elderly client who has congestive heart failure and is taking digoxin. The client should be monitored for which of the following signs of toxicity?

  1. Disorientation
  2. Weight gain
  3. Constipation
  4. Dyspnea

31. The licensed practical nurse (LPN) is assisting the registered nurse (RN) in developing the nursing care plan for an older adult who has congestive heart failure. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included?

  1. Deficient fluid volume
  2. Impaired verbal communication
  3. Chronic pain
  4. Activity intolerance

32. The nurse is caring for a client who is being evaluated for arteriosclerosis obliterans. Which complaint is the client most likely to have?

  1. Burning pain in the legs that wakens him or her at night
  2. Numbness of the feet and ankles with exercise
  3. Leg pain while walking that becomes severe enough to force him or her to stop
  4. Increasing warmth and redness of the legs when they are elevated

33. An adult is admitted with venous thromboembolism. What treatment should the nurse expect during the acute stage?

  1. Application of an elastic stocking
  2. Ambulation three times a day
  3. Passive range of motion exercises to the legs
  4. Use of ice packs to control pain

34. The nurse is observing a client who is learning to perform Buerger-Allen exercises. The nurse knows that the client is performing these exercises correctly when the client is observed doing what? Alternately dorsiflexing and plantar flexing the feet while the legs are elevated

  1. Massaging the legs beginning at the feet and moving toward the heart
  2. Alternately walking short distances and resting with the legs elevated
  3. Elevating the legs, then dangling them, and then lying flat for three minutes in each position

35. What should be included in foot care for the client who has a peripheral vascular disorder?

  1. Soaking the feet for 20 minutes before washing
    them
  2. Walking barefoot only on carpeted floors
  3. Applying lotion between the toes to avoid cracking of the skin
  4. Avoiding exposure of the legs and feet to the sun

36. An adult male is being evaluated for possible dysrhythmia and is to be placed on a Holter monitor. What instructions should the nurse give him to ensure that this test provides a comprehensive picture of his cardiac status?

  1. Remove the electrodes intermittently for hygiene measures.
  2. Exercise frequently while the monitor is in place.
  3. Keep a diary of all your activities while being monitored.
  4. Refrain from activities that precipitate
    symptoms.

37. An older adult is scheduled for coronary arteriography during a cardiac catheterization. Which nursing intervention will be essential as she recovers from the diagnostic procedure on the hospital unit?

  1. Encouraging frequent ambulation to prevent deep vein thrombosis
  2. Limiting fluid intake to prevent fluid overload
  3. Limiting dietary fiber to prevent diarrhea
  4. Assessing the arterial puncture site when taking vital signs

38. An older adult is admitted to the hospital with symptoms of severe dyspnea, orthopnea, dia- phoresis, bubbling respirations, and cyanosis. He states that he is afraid “something bad is about
to happen.” How should the nurse position this client?

  1. Sitting upright
  2. Head lower than feet
  3. Supine
  4. Prone

39. An adult male has a high level of high-density lipoproteins (HDL) in proportion to low-density lipoproteins (LDL). How does this relate to his risk of developing coronary artery disease (CAD)?

  1. His risk for CAD is low.
  2. There is no direct correlation.
  3. His risk may increase with exercise.
  4. His risk will increase with age.

40. A 72-year-old man had a total hip arthroplasty eight days ago. He suddenly develops tenderness in his left calf, a slight temperature elevation, and a positive Homan’s sign. Which of the following will be included in the initial care of this man?

  1. Warm packs to the left leg
  2. Vigorous massage of the left leg
  3. Placing the left leg in a dependent position
  4. Performing range of motion exercises to the left leg.

ANSWERS AND RATIONALES

  1. 3. Tachycardia in an adult is defined as a heart rate above 100 beats per minute. Asystole is cardiac arrest. There is no heartbeat. Bigeminy means that the heartbeats are coming in pairs.
    Bradycardia in an adult is defined as a heart rate of 60 beats or less per minute.
  2. 3. AST is an enzyme released in response to tissue damage. The symptoms are suggestive of myocardial damage. AST rises 24 hours after
    a myocardial infarction. It will also rise when there is liver damage and skeletal muscle injury. This client has symptoms typical of myocardial infarction. Gallbladder disease may present with pain in the right scapula (shoulder blade) region but would not have an elevated AST.
  3. 2 The normal clotting time is 9 to 12 minutes. A prolonged clotting time would suggest a bleeding tendency; the client should be observed for signs of bleeding, such as ecchymotic areas. Blood clots would occur with a clotting time of less than normal. Jaundice occurs with liver damage or rapid breakdown of red blood cells, such as is seen in sickle cell anemia. Infection occurs when there are too few white blood cells.
  4. 2. A prothrombin time test is done to determine the effectiveness of warfarin. A partial thromboplastin time test is done for persons taking heparin. Phenobarbital and digoxin do not require regular clotting tests. Serum levels of these drugs may be done if the client is on long-term therapy.
  5. 2. When a client is receiving Coumadin, the prothrombin time should be 1.5 to 2 times the normal value, which is 11 to 12.5 seconds. Twenty seconds falls within that range. Twelve seconds
    is normal for someone who is not receiving Coumadin. Sixty seconds is normal for a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test. Ninety-eight seconds on a PTT would be acceptable for a client who is receiving heparin. It should be 1.5 to 2 times the normal range of 60 to 70 seconds.
  6. 4. The antidote for heparin is protamine sulfate. Vitamin K is the antidote for Coumadin. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate. Caffeine is a central nervous system stimulant and will increase alertness and heart rate.
  7. Heparin is a protein and is destroyed by gastric secretions. It is given either intravenously or subcutaneously for that reason.
  8. Persons who are undergoing cardiac catheterization will receive a sedative but are not put to sleep. Their cooperation is needed during the procedure. Asking “why” makes the client defensive and is not appropriate for this client at this time. Give the client the information asked for.
  9. Allergy to shellfish is indicative of an allergy to iodine. The dye used in a cardiac catheterization is an iodine dye. Anaphylactic reactions can occur. Because the exam is scheduled for the morning, the nurse should notify the physician immediately. The other actions might have relevance but are not essential (safety related) at this time.
  10. 3. It is essential to monitor peripheral pulses after the procedure. They should be assessed before the procedure to determine location and baseline levels. An iodine dye is used during a cardiac catheterization, not a radioisotope. There is no need to give the client an enema. Fluids may be encouraged after the test. The client will be NPO for eight hours before the test.
  11. 4. A biopsy specimen cannot be obtained during a cardiac catheterization. Heart structures can be assessed, oxygen levels in the heart chambers can be determined, and cardiac output can be measured during a cardiac catheterization.
  12. 1. Checking peripheral pulses is of highest priority. The complications most likely to occur are hemorrhage and obstruction of the vessel. The client is NPO before the procedure, not after. Cold may be applied to the insertion site to vasoconstrict. Heat vasodilates and is contraindicated because it might cause bleeding. Range of motion exercises might cause bleeding. The extremity used for the insertion site is
    kept quiet immediately following a cardiac catheterization.
  13. 3. This answer indicates pain at rest, which suggests a progression of the angina. The other answers all indicate pain with known causes of angina, such as exercise, cold environment, or eating.
  14. 1. Nitroglycerin can be given at five-minute intervals for up to three doses if the pain is not relieved. Positioning with head lower than feet increases cardiac workload and would make the client worse. PRN narcotics are not usually ordered for clients who have anginal pain. Nitroglycerin, a vasodilator, is usually the medication of choice. At some point, the physician will need to be called, but there is no need to alert the code team for possible intervention.
  15. 3. Pain relief is the expected outcome when taking nitroglycerin. Vasodilation of coronary vessels will increase the blood supply to the heart muscle, decreasing pain caused by ischemia. Tingling under the tongue and a headache indicate that
    the medication is potent. His pulse rate should decrease when the pain is relieved. Increase in activity tolerance is nice, but nitroglycerin is given to relieve anginal pain.
  16. 4. Walking more slowly and resting decreases energy expenditure and prevents an attack. Answer 3 treats an attack. By the time he has pain, he is experiencing angina. To prevent angina,
    he needs to walk slowly and rest frequently. He should eat small, frequent meals—not one large meal. He should exercise within his tolerance level. Staying in bed predisposes the client to the complications of immobility, such as clots and pneumonia.
  17. 2. Reducing his physical activity reduces the cardiac workload. This response suggests a
    way that he can engage in sexual activity with minimum strain on the heart. Ambivalent feelings toward his wife are unlikely to cause anginal pain. There is some truth to being well rested and relaxed, but telling him that this is the only time he should have intercourse is not realistic. The nurse should not advise the client to have an alcoholic beverage before sexual activity.
  18. 1. Chicken is lower in sodium than beef or seafood. Baking adds no sodium to the chicken. Barbecuing adds sodium and fat, and frying adds fat and usually sodium. Mashed potatoes contain little sodium. Chinese food is usually high in sodium. Tuna fish and celery are high in sodium. Steak and carrots are high in sodium.
  19. 2. Dyspnea occurs with left-sided heart failure. Distended neck veins, hepatomegaly, and pitting edema are signs of right-sided heart failure.
  20. 1. Lasix is a potassium-depleting diuretic. Digoxin toxicity occurs more quickly in the presence of a low serum potassium. Potassium supplements are usually ordered when the client is on a potassium- depleting diuretic. There is no indication for supplemental calcium. Aspirin and Coumadin are anticoagulants and are not indicated because the client is taking Lasix and digoxin.
  21. 2. Disturbance in green and yellow vision is a sign of digoxin toxicity. A pulse of 60 is borderline for digoxin toxicity. When there is any possibility
    of digoxin toxicity, withhold the medication and report to the charge nurse. Once a person takes digoxin, it stays in the system for nearly a week. The LPN will of course record the findings, but withholding the medication is essential. The client needs to have serum digoxin levels done and does not need to be seen by an ophthalmologist. Visual disturbances are a sign of digoxin toxicity, but these are not normal.
  22. 3. Because the client has such poor blood supply to his legs, the nurse must be very careful to protect him from injury. Increasing activity tolerance might be desirable but is certainly not the primary nursing goal. Note that the question does not indicate that he has poor exercise tolerance. There are no data in the question to indicate that the client is anxious. He may need help in building a positive body image because his legs are disfigured, but this is certainly not a high priority.
  23. 2. This is an accurate answer that relates his behavior to his illness. All of the other statements are true about smoking but do not relate to his current health problem.
  24. 2. This response opens communication and allows him to talk about his feelings. The other answers do not allow him to discuss his feelings with the nurse now.
  25. 3. Chlorothiazide (Diuril) is a potassium-depleting diuretic. Orange juice and bananas are good sources of potassium. It is not necessary to increase fluids to two quarts when the client is taking a diuretic. Hard cheeses should be avoided when the client is taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). MAOIs are antidepressants. People who take Coumadin should not take aspirin.
  26. 2. Chicken is low in sodium, as are mashed potatoes and green beans. Carrot sticks, steak, hot dogs, soup, and cottage cheese are all high in sodium.
  27. 4. Age is least related to DVT. Oral estrogens, smoking, and a broken leg are all risk factors for DVT.
  28. 3. Red, shiny skin suggests inflammation. Diminished pedal pulses and color changes in the extremities when elevated are indicative of arterial insufficiency, not a clot in the vein. Coolness and pallor do not suggest inflammation; redness and warmth suggest inflammation.
  29. 3. High alcohol intake contributes to increases in blood pressure. Hypertensive clients are usually advised to limit alcohol intake to the equivalent of two glasses of wine or less per day. Dietary sodium should be limited in people with hypertension; however, dietary calcium is not a contributing factor in hypertension. Aerobic exercise is helpful in controlling high blood pressure. It may also contribute to weight reduction, which can help decrease blood pressure. Restriction of fluid intake is a medical order and is not appropriate advice for a nurse to give. Fluid restriction is avoided unless other measures are not successful.
  30. 1. Disorientation and confusion are often the first signs of digitalis toxicity in the elderly. Weight gain and dyspnea are not signs of digoxin toxicity.
    They might indicate exacerbation of congestive heart failure. Diarrhea, not constipation, is a sign of digoxin toxicity. Constipation could occur if the client has restricted activity.
  31. 4. Dyspnea and impaired oxygenation of tissues reduce the client’s ability to tolerate exercise. Excess fluid volume, manifested by edema,
    is much more likely to occur with congestive heart failure (CHF) than deficient fluid volume. Impaired verbal communication would describe dysphasia, which occurs with cerebrovascular accident (CVA), not CHF. Acute pain may occur with CHF when exacerbations occur. Chronic pain does not usually occur with CHF.
  32. 3. Severe leg pain while walking describes intermittent claudication, which is the most common symptom of arteriosclerosis obliterans. Pain at rest develops in the late stages of the disease. Pain is much more likely than numbness with exercise. Paresthesias (including numbness) do occur, but they are likely at rest. The legs and feet of the client with arteriosclerosis obliterans become cool and pale when elevated
    because there is not enough blood flow to the extremities.
  33. 1. Compression bandages or stockings help prevent edema and promote adequate venous blood flow and are a major element in the treatment of venous thromboembolism. Bed
    rest is appropriate in the acute stage of venous thromboembolism. Any form of exercise of the legs would increase the risk of pulmonary emboli. Heat is appropriate in the treatment of venous thromboembolism. Ice causes vasoconstriction, which decreases blood flow to the extremities.
  34. 4. In Buerger-Allen exercises, the feet are elevated until they blanch, then dangled until they redden, and then stretched out while the client is lying flat. This promotes arterial circulation to the feet. Dorsiflexing and plantar flexing the feet help to maintain range of motion but are not Buerger- Allen exercises. The client with peripheral vascular disease should never massage the legs because of the high risk of dislodging a thrombus if one is present. Walking promotes venous circulation but is not a Buerger-Allen exercise.
  35. 4. Sunburn would damage the already fragile skin, increasing the risk of ulceration and infection. Feet should not be soaked. Soaking leads to maceration, predisposing to skin breakdown or infection. The client with a peripheral vascular disorder should never walk barefoot. Small sharp objects such as pins may not be visible in carpet and could be stepped on. Lotion may be applied to dry areas of the legs and feet but must be avoided between the toes, where the excess moisture causes maceration. Ingredients in lotion provide a nutrient source for bacteria and fungi, increasing the infection risk if cracks in the skin occur.
  36. 3. The client should function according to his normal daily schedule unless directed to do otherwise by the physician. Keeping a diary or log of these daily activities is necessary so that it can be correlated with the continuous ECG monitor strip to determine whether the dysrhythmia occurs during a certain activity or at a particular time of day. The Holter monitor is usually worn for only 24 hours, so it is not necessary to change the leads. Activities that precipitate symptoms may be correlated with a dysrhythmia that can be treated, preventing further symptoms from occurring. Therefore, it would be helpful if the client were symptomatic while attached to the Holter monitor.
  37. 4. Following a cardiac catheterization in which an arterial site is used for access, the puncture
    or cutdown site should be assessed at least as often as vital signs are monitored. The client is
    at risk for development of bleeding, hemorrhage, hematoma formation, and arterial insufficiency
    of the affected extremity. When the arterial access site is used, the client is on strict bed rest for at least several hours. Fluids are encouraged after catheterization to increase urinary output and flush out the dye used during the procedure. There is no need to restrict dietary fiber. In fact, constipation can be dangerous for cardiac clients if they strain at stool (Valsalva maneuver.)
  38. 1. The client’s symptoms suggest pulmonary edema. Any client with severe dyspnea,
    orthopnea, and bubbling respirations needs to be in an upright position. An upright position decreases venous return to the heart by allowing blood to pool in the extremities. Decreasing venous return lowers the output of the right ventricle and decreases lung congestion. Sitting upright also allows the abdominal organs to fall away from the diaphragm, easing breathing. Positioned with head lower than feet would not promote venous pooling in the extremities and would increase venous return and pulmonary congestion. The supine position also would contribute to increased pulmonary congestion. The prone position, lying on the abdomen, does not decrease venous return, which is what this client desperately needs.
  39. 1. Although elevated LDL levels in proportion to HDL levels are positively correlated with CAD, elevated HDL levels in proportion to LDL levels may decrease the risk of developing CAD. HDL levels may increase with exercise, thereby decreasing a client’s risk of CAD. Age is not a predictor of HDL and LDL levels.
  40. 1. Warm, moist heat applied to the extremity reduces the discomfort associated with thrombophlebitis. Vigorous massage of the leg is contraindicated in any client because it may cause a thrombus to become dislodged and possibly cause a pulmonary embolus. The leg should be elevated to prevent venous stasis. Leg exercises are used to prevent thrombophlebitis; once a client has thrombophlebitis, the leg is not exercised to prevent the thrombus from becoming an embolus.

Schools Of Nursing In Bauchi State

Although, Bauchi might not be like other states that have many schools of nursing. Trust me, Bauchi State is good. For those asking if there are schools of nursing in Bauchi.

Here is the list of the nursing schools in Bauchi State:

1. Abubakar Tafawa Balewa University Teaching Hospital Nursing Training Institution

The Abubakar Tafawa Balewa University Teaching Hospital is a tertiary hospital affiliated with ATBU. The hospital is also a learning center where medical professionals are trained. The ATBUTH has a school of Nursing where Nursing programs like Basic midwifery, Basic Nursing, and other advanced Nursing courses are offered. The school is accredited by the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria. The school is owned and controlled by the governing body of the university. The College of Nursing Sciences, ATBU Teaching Hospital, Bauchi, remains a premier institution for aspiring midwifery professionals. Whether you are just starting your journey or are a community midwife seeking further accreditation, the College offers programmes tailored for excellence.

Under this institution, we have the following:

a. COLLEGE OF NURSING SCIENCES, School of Nursing, ATBU, Bauchi

LOCATION: 8RQ9+H43, Hospital Road off, Yandoka Rd, 740101, Bauchi

Admission Requirements:

Potential candidates must have the following requirements before he/she can be considered:

  1. Candidates must have five credits in English, Mathematics, Biology, Chemistry, and Physics in NECO, WAEC, or NABTEB in not more than two sittings. NABTEB can only be combined with NABTEB.
  2. Candidate must have written UME exams and got the required point that will be determined by JAMB.
  3. Candidates applying for admission must be above the age of 16 years.

Does college of nursing sciences, School of Nursing, ATBU, Bauchi require Jamb?

Yes, it requires you to write and have a good grade in Jamb before they can offer you admission.

b. School of Basic Midwifery, ATBU, Bauchi

Admission Requirements:

  • Candidates applying for Basic Midwifery must have five Credits in English, Mathematics, Biology, Chemistry, and Physics in NECO, WAEC, or NABTEB, and should not be from more than two sittings. NABTEB results can only be combined with other NABTEB results.

For Direct Entry Basic Midwifery for Community Midwives:

  • In addition to the aforementioned basic requirements, candidates aspiring for direct entry must have an active registration as a Community Midwife.

Does the School of Basic Midwifery, ATBU, Bauchi require Jamb?

Yes, it requires you to write and have a good grade in Jamb before they can offer you admission.

c. Community Midwifery Program ATBU, Bauchi SOPBN (Peri-operative)

Admission Requirements:

  • Candidates must be a registered Nurse with a current practising licence 
  • Must possess five credits In WAEC or NECO in not more than two sittings, to include English Language. Mathematics, Biology, Physics and Chemistry. NABTEB must be combined with NABTEB only.

2. Aliko Dangote College of Nursing Sciences, Bauchi

Aliko Dangote College of Nursing Sciences Bauchi was established in the year 2010 following the signing of a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between the Civilian administration of Malam (Dr.) Isah Yuguda after cedi g the former Schools of Nursing and Midwifery to the Federal Government. Bauchi State House of Assembly passed the law establishing the College which was assented by the then Governor on 30th January, 2011. The College started operation in September 2013, following the appointment of the Governing Council.

The College runs the following programmes and other health related courses, among which are

  • General Nursing
  • General Midwifery and
  • Community Midwifery

The College obtained its provisional accreditation in October 2019 from the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria.

General Nursing

The goal of Nursing over the years has been to contribute to the health of individuals and the entire society. Initially, nursing had concentrated on the care and comfort of the ill and injured, but as a result of advances in health sciences, the emphasis is now placed on protective, preventive and rehabilitative care.

The Basic Nursing education Programme is therefore geared towards the learning needs of students, health needs of the community and society. The Programme forms the basis for the practice of nursing and continuing education in the discipline  of nursing.

Basic & Community Midwifery

The curriculum for this programme is specifically designed for the training of midwives, who are critical to the delivery of safe maternal and child health services at the community level. The midwife is capable of functioning  in all areas of the health care delivery system.

The Basic Midwifery Programme is aimed at producing practitioners who are able to make independent judgments, manage normal midwifery, provide appropriate care including family planning, and refer individuals with high-risk pregnancies and complications to other levels of health care.

Admission Requirements For General Nursing and General Midwifery

Candidates for admission into the General Nursing Education programme must:

  • Possess the senior secondary school certificate (WAEC or NECO), with minimum of Five (5) credits including English Language, Mathematics, Physics, Biology and Chemistry at no more than Two (2) sittings.
  • Candidates applying for the Post Basic Programme must be a qualified registered Midwife or Mental Health Nurse in addition to the above basic requirements.

The General Nursing Programme is a 3-calendar year (6 semesters) programme of study.

Admission Requirements For Community Midwifery

Candidates for admission into the Bauchi State Community Midwifery Programme must:

  • Possess Senior Secondary School Certificate with at least Credits in English and Biology or Health Science and three (3) passes in any O-level subjects at no more than two (2) sittings. Applicants are allowed to combine WAEC and NECO results.
  • Candidates for the Community Midwife Programme must be residential within her Local Government of origin.
  • Minimum age for admission is 18 years.
  • Maximum age for admission is 35 years.

The Community Midwifery program is an 18-month Programme of study.

Does Aliko Dangote College of Nursing Sciences, Bauchi require Jamb?

It depends on the program. As for ND-HND Nursing, yes, they require Jamb.

How much are the School fees for the School of Nursing Bauchi?

Nursing Sciences is a very expensive course almost all over the world. School fees for Bauchi Schools of Nursing can be estimated to be around 120,000 or more.

Does Aliko Dangote College of Nursing Sciences, Bauchi offer Nursing?

Yes, they do.

Risk Factors For UTI

Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs) are any infection of the urinary system such as the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra. When any of these organs are infected, we say you have UTIs.

Urinary tract infections are common in humans; occur more in women due to the shortness of their urethra than in men, and are caused mostly by bacteria as well as certain fungi.

Urinary Tract Infections start as a result of bad toilet habits, inconveniences, and sexual habits.

Urinary Tract Infections, the inflammatory disorders of the urinary tract caused by pathogenic microorganisms, affect 150 million people each year worldwide.

Urinary Tract Infections in the body range from asymptomatic (without noticeable symptoms) infections to serious systematic kidney diseases which can lead to shock and death, or cause short-term morbidity in terms of fever, dysuria, and lower abdominal pain.

This type of infection is usually classified as complicated or uncomplicated.

UTIs can be acquired in the community setting, hospital-acquired (nosocomial) after 48 hours of admission, from a sexual partner/ spouse, and/or unhygienic.

Some Pathogens That Cause Urinary Tract Infection

Urinary Tract Infection is caused by any of these pathogenic microorganisms:

1. Escherichia coli

2. Klebsiella pneumonia

3. Proteus mirabilis

4. Enterococcus (Streptococcus faecalis)

5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

6. Enterobacter aerogenes

7. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

8. Staphylococcus aureus

9. Salmonella species

10. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

11. Mycobacteria tuberculosis

12. Candida albicans

Your doctor will request you to do a urine culture test to look out for any of the above-listed pathogenic microorganisms when diagnosing UTIs.

Some commensal flora like Staphylococcus epidermis, Diphtheroids, Acinetobacter, Mycobacterium segments, contaminants from the skin, or fecal flora are not always considered pathogenic when diagnosed.

Complicated UTIs are those UTIs caused by activities that compromise the urinary tract or host defense leading to infection while Uncomplicated UTIs are those UTIs that affect healthy individuals without any neurological urinary tract abnormalities.

Both complicated and uncomplicated UTIs can be summarized as lower, and upper UTIs, and urinary tract abnormalities.

Types of Urinary Tract Infections

1. Cystitis (lower UTIs): This is the infection of the bladder, which occurs when your bladder is infected with pathogenic microorganisms such as Escherichia coli. Some of the risk factors of cystitis are female gender, recurrent UTIs, sexual activity, vaginal infection, diabetes, obesity, and genetic susceptibility. Back pain or side pain, high fever, shaky and chills, nausea, and vomiting are some of the symptoms associated with cystitis.

2. Pyelonephritis (upper UTIs): This is the infection of the kidneys, which occurs when your kidney is infected as a result of obstruction of the urinary tract. The chances increase when there is urine retention due to the bladder not emptying, obstruction of urine flow due to renal stones, or the presence of urinary schistosomiasis, enlarged prostate in men, or tumors. It’s far less common than cystitis having 250,000 cases per year in the United States. Pelvic pressure, painful urination (dysuria), frequent urination, blood in the urine (hematuria), and abdominal discomfort are the symptoms associated with Pyelonephritis caused by Escherichia coli, Proteus species, and Klebsiella species.

3. Urethritis (urinary tract abnormalities): This is the infection of the urethra, which occurs when the urethra is infected with pathogenic microorganisms like Neisseria gonorrhea and Chlamydia. The symptoms include burning with urination and discharge.

What are the common pathogens involved in UTIs

The most common pathogens involved in UTIs are:

• Escherichia coli: This causes about 75-95% of UTIs followed by Klebsiella pneumonia, Staphylococcus saprophyticus, Enterococcus faecalis, Proteus mirabilis, etc

• Neisseria gonorrhea and Chlamydia trachomatis: These are the common causes of Urethritis. Both of them are transmitted through sexual intercourse.

• Mycobacterium tuberculosis: This is carried from any site of infection to the kidney through the blood. It’s commonly seen in persons with chronic fever when there is pyuria but the culture is sterile.

What are the causes of urinary tract infections

The urinary tract is made up of the kidneys, bladder, urethra, and ureters.

Normally, the bladder, urine, and urinary tract system are sterile. They are usually free from bacteria, parasites, fungi, and viruses. Any infection occurs whenever pathogens say bacteria from the digestive tract enter the opening of the urethra and begin to multiply. In females, the urine may become contaminated with microorganisms from the vagina. Vaginal contamination is often indicated by the presence of epithelial cells and mixed bacterial flora.

However, whenever bacteria enter from your rectal area into the urinary tract through the urethra to the bladder, multiple causes an infection.

If the infection is only within the urethra is called Urethritis, but if it moves to the bladder and multiplies, it becomes a bladder infection called Cystitis.

If you leave it untreated, the bacteria are capable of traveling further up the Ureters and infecting the kidneys called Pyelonephritis. This implies that UTIs are infections that occur in any part of the urinary tract. E.coli is a common organism causing about 75-95% of UTIs due to its position in the colon. Patients with catheters also have the chance of being infected with UTIs.

Catheter-associated UTIs are Proteus mirabilis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Staphylococcus, Streptococcus faecalis, and Klebsiella species.

What are the things that can increase the chances of developing UTIs

• Diabetes

• Age (in elderly people )

• Urinary retention

• Urinary catheter

• Enlarged prostate

• Bowel incontinence

• Kidney stone

• Pregnancy

• Being in one place (immobile)

What Are The Risk Factors For UTIs

1. Holding your urine for too long: The bacteria spend a greater time in the bladder before it replicates and multiplies, therefore it multiplies the bacteria.

2. Personal hygiene: Contamination with feces increase the risk of coliform bacteria in the vagina and urethra.

3. Sexual activity: The bacteria may be mechanically pushed into the urethra during sexual activities.

4. Spermicidal contraception: The use of superficial contraception changes the normal flora in the vagina and allows coliform bacteria to multiply and colonize the area.

5. Genetics: Some cells on the vaginal mucosa and urethra sometimes allow bacteria to attach and pull themselves into the bladder causing UTIs.

6. Hormonal status: The vagina and urethra become vulnerable to UTIs when estrogen is lacking thereby increasing the chances of UTIs.

7. Diabetes: Constant rise in blood sugar levels leads to immunosuppression which also increases the chances of UTIs.

8. Immunosuppression: This decreases the ability to resist pathogens that cause UTIs.

9. Sexual intercourse: Having sex with an infected person.

10. Not being circumcised: The foreskin of the penis can easily contract infections.

11. Weak immune system: You can’t fight against infection and diseases if your immune system is weak.

12. Urinary tract problem: Uncontrollable urination as a result of urinary tract problems can cause UTIs.

Problems Of Urinary Tract Infection Among Pregnant Women

Urinary tract infections are more common among pregnant women than in other healthy women. As such it poses adverse effects to the mother, the fetus, and the newborn.

This is because as you become pregnant, the chances of change in your urinary tract and immune system increase which can lead to bacteriuria, causing serious risk for you and your baby.

Infection in the first trimester of pregnancy is proven to be difficult to treat as strong antibiotics are required for the treatment, but due to the early pregnancy, they may not be used. Strong antibiotics to treat UTIs are not good for pregnant women else they cause serious complications such as low birth weight, preterm labor, hypertension, pre-eclampsia, anemia, pyelonephritis, stillbirth, amnionitis, neonatal death, bacteremia, toxic septicemia, waist and back pain, and abdominal pain.

However, if UTIs occur in early pregnancy, moderate antibiotics like Amoxicillin, Penicillin, Celtaxidime, Norfloxacin, and Cefoxitin are recommended to treat the majority of the urinary tract pathogens at this stage.

A concluded study has revealed that UTIs can be a danger for pregnant women with whom it has been revealed that up to 50% of those with asymptomatic bacteriuria go on to get Pyelonephritis.

Not only that, the acidity of urine during pregnancy reaches the percentage that helps Escherichia coli to grow. This means that undetected, untreated, asymptomatic bacteriuria can lead to Pyelonephritis later in the pregnancy or during Puerperium.

How do I know if I have UTIs

There are steps to take when diagnosing urinary tract infections.

Urine Collection

In diagnosing UTI, your doctor or healthcare provider will request that you collect the first urine passed at the beginning of the day for the examination because the urine at this time is most concentrated and most suitable for culture, microscopy, and other tests.

For accurate and precise examination, mid-stream urine (MSU) should be used.

Your doctor or healthcare provider will direct you on how to get mid-stream urine.

You’ll be given a sterile, dry, wide-mouthed, leakproof screw-capped container to get about 20mls of urine immediately after you wash your hands and the urethral opening with clean water (for females) and screw on the cap of the container.

Urine Microscopy

Urine Culture

Only urine that is not bio-chemically and microscopically normal is cultured.

From the urine microscopy, the laboratory professional will know if the urine is normal or not unless in asymptomatic bacteriuria mostly in pregnancy. Some laboratory professionals would rather culture all urine specimens whether biochemical or microscopic results are normal or not. The laboratory professional will run the test and ask you to back in a few days. Your doctor will interpret the result for you.

Treatment Of Urinary Tract Infection

This is always treated effectively with strong antibiotics, especially with injections.

School Of Nursing Courses

COURSES FOR EACH SEMESTER OF THE PROGRAMME

Every school of nursing organized the three (3) years programme for general nursing in semesters. Each year has two (2) semesters, and courses are allotted to each semester. The first year has the preliminary training session (PTS) as the first semester and the junior block as the second semester. The second and third years also have first and second semesters.

Below are the courses for each semester.

FIRST YEAR

First Semester (PTS) Preliminary Training Session

Anatomy and Physiology
Foundations of Nursing 1
Community Health 1
Family Health 1
Pharmacology 1
Nutrition
Behavioral Science
Microbiology
Physics
Chemistry
Use of English
Computer Science
Use of Library
Hospital based clinical practice

Second Semester (Junior Block)

Medical/Surgical Nursing 1
Foundations of Nursing1
Family Health 1
Community Health1
Nutrition
Dietetics
Pharmacology 1
Parasitology
Obstetrics and Gynaecology
Behavioural Science
Use of English
Hospital based clinical practice

SECOND YEAR

First Semester

Medical/Surgical Nursing 11
Foundations of Nursing 11
Family Health 11
Community Health 11
Pharmacology 11
Research Methodology
Statistical Method
Emergency Nursing
Principles of Management and Teaching
Hospital based clinical practice
Dietetics
Use of English
Parasitology

Second Semester

Medical/Surgical Nursing
Family Health 11
Community Health 11
Foundations of Nursing 11
Pharmacology 11
Research Methodology
Statistical method
Emergency Nursing
Principles of Management and Teaching
Dietetics
Mental Health Nursing
Use of English
Hospital based clinical practice
Community based clinical practice
Parasitology

THIRD YEAR

First Semester

Medical/Surgical Nursing 111
Community Health 111
Family Health 111
Foundations of Nursing 111
Pharmacology 111
Research Methodology
Statistical method
Principles of Management & Teaching
Ophthalmology
Ear, nose and throat
Anesthesiology
Theatre technique
Orthopaedics
Use of English
Seminar in Nursing
Hospital based clinical practice
Emergency Nursing

Second Semester

Medical/Surgical Nursing 111
Family Health 111
Community Health 111
Foundations of Nursing111
Pharmacology 111
Research Methodology
Statistical method
Emergency Nursing
Principles of Management and Teaching
Hospital based clinical practice
Theatre technique
Anaesthesiology
Use of English
Seminar in Nursing

Schools of Nursing in Akwa Ibom

There are a good number of Schools of Nursing in Akwa Ibom that are approved by NMCN, I shall be listening to them ehh

1. School of Nursing, Anua, Uyo

School of Nursing Anua in Uyo is one of the most popular nursing schools in Akwa Ibom State.

2. School of Nursing, Eket

3. School of Nursing, Ikot Ekpene

4. School of Nursing, Ituk, Mbang.

5. School of Post Basic Midwifery, Anua, Uyo

6. School of Post Basic Midwifery, Iquita-Oron

7. School of Post Basic Midwifery, Ituk-Mbang

8. School of Psychiatric Nursing, Eket

Schools Of Nursing In Adamawa State

We will begin by saying a little about the State, and the present Governor before listing the number of approved Schools of Nursing in Adamawa State. The current governor of ADAMAWA STATE is His Excellency Ahmadu Umaru Fintiri.

LOCAL GOVERNMENT AREAS (LGAS) IN ADAMAWA STATE

There is a need for you to know the number of Local Government Areas in the State you have aspired to School. So, these are the local government areas (LGAS) in Adamawa State

Local Governments In Adamawa State

Demsa, Fufore, Ganaye, Gireri, Gombi, Guyuk, Hong, Jada, Lamurde, Madagali, Maiha, Mayo, Belwa, Michika, Mubi North, Mubi South, Numan, Shelling, Song, Toungo, Yola North, and Yola South

List of Schools of Nursing in Adamawa State.

1. College of Nursing Science, Adamawa State School of Nursing, Yola

They have sections like Community Nursing Program, School of Midwifery Yola, and Community Midwifery under the School.

https://conam.admissions.cloud/

LOCATION OF THE SCHOOL:

Along Fufore Road Yola Bypass After Modibbo Adama University Teaching Hospital (Former FMC Yola)

Courses Offered In College Of Adamawa State School Of Nursing, Yola

i.        Post-Basic Nursing Programme for qualified Midwives who wish to obtain General Nursing Certificate.

ii.       Adaptation Programme: This programme is for Foreign trained nurses and Registered Midwives undergoing BNSc programme. It will lead to the award of various professional certificates by the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria.

iii.       Return Basic Nursing Programme: The programme is for Licensed Community Nurses who wish to return for the Basic Nursing programme with a minimum of five credits in Mathematics, English, Biology, Chemistry and Physics. It will lead to the award of Registered Nurse certificate by the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria.

iv.       Return Basic Midwifery Programme: The programme is for Licensed Community Midwives who wish to return for the Basic Midwifery programme with a minimum of five credits in Mathematics, English, Biology, Chemistry and Physics. It will lead to the award of Registered Midwife certificate by the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria.

v.        Community Nursing Programme for candidates with a minimum of four (4) credits in English Language, Biology and any two  (2) of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. It leads to the award of Licensed Community Nurse Certificate by the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria.

vi. Community Midwifery Programme for candidates with a minimum of four (4) credits in English Language, Biology and any two (2) of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. It leads to the award of Licensed Community Midwife Certificate by the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria.

Entry Requirements for Adamawa State College of Nursing and Midwifery Admission

Basic Nursing Programme

  • You must have five (5) credits in WAEC, NECO, or NABTEB.
  • The required subjects include English Language, Mathematics, Biology, Chemistry, and Physics.
  • These credits should be obtained in no more than two (2) sittings.

Community Nursing Programme

  • You need a minimum of four (4) credits.
  • Required subjects include English Language, Biology, and any other two from the subjects listed above.
  • This programme is available only to indigenes of Adamawa State. Non-indigenes should not apply.

2. Modibbo Adama University of Technology (MAUTECH)

MAUTECH’s School of Nursing Science offers both bachelor’s and master’s degrees in nursing. Their B.Sc. The nursing program lasts 4 years and prepares you to become a registered nurse. MAUTECH is known for emphasizing hands-on clinical experience at its teaching hospital. They frequently update their curriculum to match international standards.

LOCATION OF THE SCHOOL: Girei, a town in Adamawa State, Northeastern Nigeria.

3. Department Of Nursing Sciences, Adamawa State University (ADSU)

ADSU’s Department of Nursing Science provides a B.Sc. Nursing program that takes 5 years to complete. They focus on training students to become competent nurses and midwives. Their curriculum covers areas like adult health nursing, mental health nursing, and community health nursing. ADSU partners with nearby hospitals and healthcare facilities to provide clinical placements for students.

4. School of Post Basic Midwifery Yola

This school offers a 2-year Higher Diploma program in Midwifery for registered nurses. The program provides specialized training in pregnancy, childbirth, and postnatal care. Students get practical experience through clinical rotations at nearby hospitals. The school has a high success rate for its graduates passing the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria licensing exam.

5. School of Peri-operative Nursing, Federal Medical Center, Yola.

Admission into the school is through an entrance examination and interview. All intending students must purchase the application form from the school and submit it directly online to the institution, write the examination and if successful go for the interview and be admitted.

Admission Requirements:

  • Applicants must possess credit level passes in five (5) subjects such as English Language, Mathematics, Biology, Physics, and Chemistry in WAEC/NECO in not more than two (2) sittings.
  • Candidates must pass the entrance examination and the interview conducted by the schools in respect to the course of choice, and prior to admission.

School Fees For Schools Of Nursing In Adamawa State.

Nursing schools cost a lot of money, and if you don’t have a good sponsor please do not try to start a career in nursing. School fees can vary significantly depending on the program and school. However, Federal government universities cost less among others.

  • ADN programs: Candidates are to budget from ₦200,000 to ₦500,000 per year. Total cost around ₦400,000 to ₦1 million.
  • BSN programs: Candidates are to budget from ₦300,000 to ₦700,000 per year. Total cost around ₦1.2 million to ₦2.8 million.
  • Accelerated BSN programs: Around ₦500,000 to ₦1 million per year. Total cost around ₦1 million to ₦2 million.
  • Graduate nursing programs (MSN, DNP, PhD): Between ₦500,000 to over ₦1.5 million per year. Total cost can range from ₦1.5 million up to ₦6 million or more depending on the program.

Courses In Schools of Nursing Yola, Adamawa State:

  • Associate Degree in Nursing (ADN): A 2-3 year program that prepares you to become a registered nurse (RN). ADN programs are offered at many community colleges and nursing schools in Adamawa State.
  • Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN): A 4-year degree that also prepares you to become an RN. BSN programs provide a more well-rounded education and are offered at many colleges and universities across Adamawa State.
  • Accelerated BSN: A faster BSN program, usually 12-18 months, for those who already have a bachelor’s degree in another field.
  • Master of Science in Nursing (MSN): For RNs who want to specialize as nurse practitioners, nurse anesthetists, nurse midwives, clinical nurse specialists, or nurse educators. Many schools in Adamawa State offer MSN programs.

Schools Of Nursing In Kano State

To becoming a nurse in Kano State, there are several reputable nursing schools to consider for your training and education.

1. Kano State School of Nursing

The Kano State School of Nursing offers a 3-year basic nursing program leading to the Registered Nursing (RN) credential. They have a high success rate for the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria licensing exam. The school has modern facilities and highly qualified lecturers. Admission requires 5 credits in WASSCE/NECO including English Language, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry & Biology at not more than two sittings.

2. Murtala Mohammed Specialist Hospital School of Post Basic Nursing Studies

For licensed RNs pursuing advanced certifications, the Murtala Mohammed Specialist Hospital School of Post Basic Nursing Studies provides quality education and practical experience. They offer post-basic programs in Midwifery, Ophthalmic, Pediatric, Psychiatric, Public Health Nursing and Anesthesia. Admission requires an RN license and a year of work experience.

3. Aminu Kano Teaching Hospital School of Nursing

Affiliated with Aminu Kano Teaching Hospital, this school produces skilled and caring nurses and midwives. They offer Basic Nursing, Post-Basic Midwifery and Ophthalmic Nursing programs. Facilities include skill labs, demonstration rooms, a library and more. Admission requires 5 credits in WASSCE/NECO/SSCE/GCE including English, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.

4. Hamdala College of Nursing Sciences (HAMCONS), Medile

Hamdala College of Nursing Sciences (HAMCONS), Medile, Kano is a registered Cooperate Institution with Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria – Established by Decree 89 1979.

It is also a registered entity with cooperate affairs commission under Hamdala Islamic Support Foundation with the CAC registration Number 171440. The institution was registered with other relevant regulatory bodies/Ministries of Health and Tertiary Education in Kano State.

The Objectives of Hamdala College of Nursing Sciences includes: Promotion and availing the youth with learning and development opportunities in health education and technology. Uplift the standard of health care delivery system across the Country and enhanced discipline, professionalism and commitment to excellence in health education services delivery.

5. Dansharif College Of Nursing Sciences Kano

Dansharif College Of Nursing Sciences Kano, is incepted from the lifelong passion and commitment to humanity of the Founder Alh Rabiu Dansharif, this is to respond to the demand of quality and affordable health workers specifically Nurses and Midwives in our community. At Dansharif College of Nursing Sciences, our education system inspires the next generation. DCNS is:

  • Approved by Nursing & Midwifery Council of Nigeria.
  • Affiliated to World Standard Universities.
  • Students Clinical Experience from Renowned Hospitals.

Programmes Offered Are Dansharif College Of Nursing Sciences Kano:

1. Basic Nursing

Candidates for admission into Basic Midwifery Programme must possess the senior secondary school certificate or its equivalent with credit in at least five (5) subjects i.e. Physics, Chemistry, Biology, English and Mathematics at not more than two (2) sittings.

2. Basic Midwifery

Candidates for admission into Basic Midwifery Programme must possess the senior secondary school certificate or its equivalent with credit in at least five (5) subjects i.e. Physics, Chemistry, Biology, English and Mathematics at not more than two (2) sittings.

3. Community Nursing

Candidate for admission into Community Nursing Programme must possess the senior secondary certificate or its equivalent with five credits in English Language, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology at not more 2 sitting (NECO-NECO or WAEC-WAEC).

4. Community Midwifery

Candidates for admission into Community Midwifery Programme must possess the senior secondary school certificate or its equivalent with credit in at least five (5) subjects i.e. Physics, Chemistry, Biology, English and Mathematics at not more than two (2) sittings.

6. Aminu Dabo College of Nursing and Midwifery, Kano

Phone: 070-4280-0003, 070-4280-0004, 070-4280-0005

Website address: https://adcons.edu.ng

i) You are expected to enter not more than two sittings of O’level Examination results

ii) You are expected to enter grade details of relevant O’level results (SSCE/WAEC etc)

iii) You are also required to specify the centre number and exam number of all the results you have entered.

7. Emirate College Of Nursing Sciences (ECONS), Kano

This is a private school you can easily secure her admission
School fee around 300k for first year.

8. Maryam Abacha American University of Nigeria, Kano

Maryam Abacha American University of Nigeria (MAAUN) is a large private university situated in the ancient commercial city of Kano State of Nigeria. 

Maryam Abacha American University of Nigeria, Kano is fully licensed and accredited by the National Universities Commission (NUC).

MAAUN is well-equipped with the State – of – the – Art facilities, experienced faculties, ideal and flexible learning environment. Furthermore, the academic programs are robust and enriched with real-world working experience, career prospects, multicultural experiences in tandem with the global best practice.

At the moment, the University runs 19 undergraduate programs in five schools – Computing, Health Sciences, Nursing Science, School of Law, Social and Management Sciences.

MAAUN is located at No. 5 Adamu Abubakar Gwarzo Road, Hotoro – Nassarawa, GRA Kano.

With opportunities at reputable institutions, Kano State has options for those aspiring to join the nursing profession or build upon their current nursing career. By choosing an accredited nursing school, you will receive a high quality education to prepare you for licensing and a rewarding career helping others.

Imo State College of Nursing Orlu Admission Form 2024/2025

The admission form for the Imo State College of Nursing Sciences, Orlu, for the 2024/2025 academic session is now available. The cut-off mark is 150, and the form costs N21,000. Applications are open until November Imo State College of Nursing Orlu Admission Form 2024/2025.

The admission form for the Imo State College of Nursing Sciences, Orlu, for the 2024/2025 academic session is now available. The cut-off mark is 150, and the form costs N21,000. Applications are open until September 20, 2024. Registration for the General Nursing Programme will begin on August 20, 2024.

Eligibility Criteria:

  • Applicants must have selected Imo State College of Nursing Sciences, Orlu, as their first choice and achieved a minimum of 150 in the UTME.
  • General Nursing must be chosen as the programme.
  • Candidates who did not select Imo State College of Nursing Sciences as their first choice but meet the cut-off mark should change their first-choice institution to Imo State College of Nursing Sciences via the JAMB website before the application deadline.
  • Results must be uploaded to JAMB to be considered.
  • Applicants need five credits in SSCE or its equivalent, including English, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, and Mathematics, at no more than two sittings.

Application Process:

  1. Make a payment of N21,000 at the College bursary and collect a Portal Login Pin.
  2. Visit the College’s website at www.imcons.edu.ng, click on “new admission,” and follow the steps provided.
  3. Print your application form after submission.
  4. Submit a copy of the form and the payment receipt to the Admissions unit.
  5. Bring the acknowledgment slip to the screening venue on the test date.

    Screening Dates:

    The aptitude test is scheduled for September 24-26, 2024, starting at 9 AM.

    Important:
  • For easy registration for the aptitude test, visit the ICT Unit at the college.
  • The application portal opens on August 20, 2024, and closes on September 20, 2024., 2024. Registration for the General Nursing Programme will begin on November 28, 2024.

    Eligibility Criteria:
  • Applicants must have selected Imo State College of Nursing Sciences, Orlu, as their first choice and achieved a minimum of 150 in the UTME.
  • General Nursing must be chosen as the programme.
  • Candidates who did not select Imo State College of Nursing Sciences as their first choice but meet the cut-off mark should change their first-choice institution to Imo State College of Nursing Sciences via the JAMB website before the application deadline.
  • Results must be uploaded to JAMB to be considered.
  • Applicants need five credits in SSCE or its equivalent, including English, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, and Mathematics, at no more than two sittings.

Application Process:

  1. Make a payment of N21,000 at the College bursary and collect a Portal Login Pin.
  2. Visit the College’s website at www.imcons.edu.ng, click on “new admission,” and follow the steps provided.
  3. Print your application form after submission.
  4. Submit a copy of the form and the payment receipt to the Admissions unit.
  5. Bring the acknowledgment slip to the screening venue on the test date.

    Screening Dates:

    The aptitude test is scheduled for September 24-26, 2024, starting at 9 AM.

    Important:
  • For easy registration for the aptitude test, visit the ICT Unit at the college.
  • The application portal opens on October 20, 2024, and closes on November 30th, 2024.

The Management of the school hereby informs the general public on the sales of the general Nursing Admission form into the School of Nursing, INTERNSHIP FORMS, And also the sales of two (2) two-year Basic Nursing Programme.

REQUIREMENT FOR THE GENERAL NURSING AND POST-BASIC MIDWIFERY PROGRAMMES

  1. GENERAL NURSING PROGRAMME: Requirements for Candidates seeking admission into the General Nursing Programme; Candidate must possess the Senior Secondary School Certificate or its equivalent with five credits to include English Language and either Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Health Science at not more than 2 sittings. Duration of Training: Three Calendar Years.
  2. POST BASIC NURSING MIDWIFERY PROGRAMME. Admission Requirements: The Candidate must be a Registered Nurse, Five-O, Level Credits not more than two sittings, and must also meet all institutional Requirements. Duration of Training: Two Calendar Years.

Is there any school of nursing without Jamb selling form now?

I want to clear the air by answering so many questions from candidates who have been asking me questions.

Is there any school of nursing selling form now?

Truthful saying, there are a few or no school of nursings selling admission forms presently. If there are, they could not be your preferred school of choice.

Can I apply for school of nursing without Jamb?

This depends on your choice of school.

Yes, there are so many schools of nursing you can apply without Jamb. Here is the list of the schools of nursing without Jamb.

Can I apply for nursing school now?

The question is; what nursing school do you have in mind to apply to? Because there are several schools of nursing whose admission forms are no longer on sale.

Can I apply for school of nursing without jamb scores 140, 160, etc

Yes, although it depends on your choice, there are schools of nursing you can actually apply to with the Jamb scores below 140.

Can I still gain admission into school of nursing now?

Yes, you can gain admission provided that you purchased the admission form and applied for admission. Admissions are in batches, if you are not in Batch A, you may be in the subsequent Batches.

Which school of nursing is currently available that does not require Jamb?

Only private schools of nursing are currently available and do not require Jamb. If you can afford it, why not? Are you ready to go to the state where the school is located? If yes and show interest, I will list them in the comment section.

When will they start selling forms for midwifery?

Various schools of midwifery in different states have different periods during which they sell their admission forms depending on their academic calendar. But mostly, admission forms commence between the 2nd quarter of the year for most schools of midwifery whereas few start at the beginning of the year. Always visit this site, we do keep students updated.

Can I study Nursing sciences with Jamb scores of 240, 250, etc.?

We have many universities offering nursing sciences with their Jamb cut-off marks for nursing sciences. Check the list of schools and their cut-off marks here

What are the school fees for schools of nursing in Nigeria?

Studying nursing in Nigeria is very expensive, and if you can’t afford it please kindly back out now. Approximately, school fees for nursing range from #200,000 and above for entrance. This also includes federal universities.

When is the form going to be on sale again?

We shall update you whenever any school of nursing starts selling their admission forms. Just keep visiting this site for updates on the admission process.

Which school of nursing is selling form in Nigeria now?

At this time of writing this, there are few or no schools of nursing except private schools of nursing.

Nursing Ethics And Jurisprudence

OBJECTIVES QUESTIONS 2022

 

1. ________________deals with human behaviour which is concern with what is the least of such behavior that can be accepted by society.

A) Ethics

B) Law

C) Jurisprudence

D) Equity

ANSWER: B

2. ________________is the philosophy of the law, which can include ethical discussions, societal and political views, and the historical context of law.

A) Ethics

B) Law

C) Jurisprudence

D) Equity

    ANSWER: C

3. ___________ refer to the official power to make legal decisions and judgement

A) Authority

B) Contract

C) Jurisprudence

D) Jurisdiction

ANSWER: D

4. Nurses have legal responsibilities common to all members of the community, and also the responsibilities imposed by the nature of their work, which may be defined as responsibilities in respect of:

A) The provision of safe effective nursing care

B) The health of the community

C) The employing authority

D) All of the above.

ANSWER: D

5. ______________ is the branch of law that deals with rules of behaviour which oversee our conduct in the society in terms of our relationship with others and their property

A) Criminal law

B) Civil law

C) Law of Tort

D) Contract law

Answer: A

6. The individual that institute a civil litigation is called _____________

A) Defendant

B) Tort

C) Plaintiff

D) Damage

ANSWER: C

7. The person being sued in a Civil Litigation is the ____________

A) Defendant

B) Tort

C) Plaintiff

D) Damage

ANSWER: A 

8. When the type of civil litigation involves an injury, the injury action is called__________

A) Defendant

B) Tort

C) Plaintiff

D) Damage

ANSWER: B

9. The goal of civil law is to compensate the plaintiff. The compensation is referred to as ________________

A) Defendant

B) Tort

C) Plaintiff

D) Damage

ANSWER: D 

10. _________________in a legal sense, describes conduct that falls below the standard required by law

A) Negligence

B) Tort

C) Defamation

D) Vicarious liability

ANSWER: A

11. A plaintiff must prove the following elements to succeed in an action for negligence

A) That the defendant owed the plaintiff a duty of care

B) That this duty of care was breached by failure to conform to the appropriate standard of care

C) That the plaintiff suffered injury as a result of the breach of duty.

D) All of the above

     ANSWER: D

12. Failure to follow standards of care, which could result in malpractice includes the following EXCEPT  

A) Failure to perform a complete admission assessment or design a plan of care 

B) Failure to adhere to standardized protocols or institutional policies and procedures 

(e.g. using an improper injection site)

C) Input and output monitoring

D) Failure to follow medical officer’s verbal or written orders 

ANSWER: C

13. Failure to use equipment in a responsible manner can result in a malpractice suite case against a nurse

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

ANSWER: A

14. ____________ is an intentional threat or an attempted intentional threat to injure or bring about harmful or offensive contact with another individual e.g., threatening to force a patient to take his medication or restraining a patient in order to give an injection. 

A) Battery

B) Assault

C) Breach

D) Misconduct

ANSWER: B

15. Battery – an intentional touching of another person without consent, with or without injury e.g., dressing of patient wound without consent.

         A) Battery

C) Assault

D) Breach

E) Misconduct

ANSWER: A

 

16. ___________ is the study of ethical dilemma in healthcare. 

A) Law

B) Ethics

C) Bioethics

D) Jurisprudence

ANSWER: C

17. _____________ is breaking the law, an obligation, or the terms of a contract. 

A) Misdemeanour

B) Breach

C) Prosecute

D) Assault

ANSWER: B

18. ___________ is a branch of law that defines the legal relationships between individuals. 

A) Criminal law

B) Civil law

C) Family law

D) Contract law

ANSWER: B

19. _______________ is making a person stay in a place against his/her wishes e.g., isolating a patient in a ward without seeking consent.

A) Felony

B) Manslaughter

C) Fraud

D) False imprisonment 

ANSWER: D

20. ___________ is a serious crime; a crime punishable by a term of imprisonment. 

A) Felony

B) Manslaughter

C) Fraud

D) False imprisonment

ANSWER: A

21. Values can be expressed through the following except

a. Feelings​

b. Behaviors​

c. Ambitions​

d. Decisions

ANSWER: C

22. The following are examples of values except

a. Integrity​

b.   Sentiments​

c. Privacy​

d. Family

ANSWER: B

 

23. Which of the following is not an approach to values education

a. Health education

b. Moral development​

c. Action learning

d. Values clarification

ANSWER: A

 

24. In the process of clarifying values the following stages are considered except

a. Prizing​

b. Analyzing​

c. Choosing​

d. Acting

ANSWER: B

 

25. ………………………………refers to the set of standards that enable people live cooperatively in groups

 

ANSWER: Ethics

 

 

26. ………………………………has been spoken of as minor morals

ANSWER: Etiquette

 

 

27. ……………………………..is not an ethical quality

a. Devotion​

b. Justice​

c. Agitation

d. Altruism

ANSWER: C

 

28. …………………………….is an  accepted code of behavior and a way of behaving politely in social settings

ANSWER: Morality

 

29. The following are fundamental responsibilities of Nurses under code of ethics except

a. To promote health

b. To promote illness

c. To restore health

d. To alleviate suffering

ANSWER: B

30. Which of the following is not an ethical principle

a. Autonomy

b. Justice​

c. Beneficence​

d. Non-beneficence

      ANSWER: D

 

31. Who can best provide consent among the following

a. A minor​

b. Unconscious person​

c. A guardian

d. Mentally ill

ANSWER: C

 

32. The following are types of work related attitudes except

a. Job satisfaction​

b. Commitment to organization​

c. Involvement in the job​

d. Avoiding conflict

ANSWER: D

33. ………………………is a problem in the decision-making process between two possible options neither of which is absolutely acceptable 

ANSWER: Ethical Dilemma

 

34. The word ethics is derived from the Greek word ……………………………..

ANSWER: Ethos

 

35. …………………………………..is the differentiation of intentions and decisions between actions that are proper and improper.

ANSWER: Morality

GST 126 NURSING ETHICS AND JURISPRUDENCE MCQ 2023

1. The best explanation of what Title VI of the Civil Rights Act mandates is the freedom to:

A)  Pick any physician and insurance company despite one’s income

B) Receive free medical benefits as needed within the county of residence

C) Have equal access to all health care regardless of race and religion

D) Have basic care with a sliding scale payment plan from all health care facilities

ANSWER: C

2. Which statement would best explain the role of the nurse when planning care for a culturally diverse population? The nurse will plan care to:

A) Include care that is culturally congruent with the staff from predetermined criteria

B) Focus only on the needs of the client, ignoring the nurse’s beliefs and practices

C) Blend the values of the nurse that are for the good of the client and minimize the client’s individual values and beliefs during care

D) Provide care while aware of one’s own bias, focusing on the client’s individual needs rather than the staff’s practices

ANSWER:  D

3. Which factor is least significant during assessment when gathering information about cultural practices?

A) Language, timing

B) Touch, eye contact

C) Biocultural needs

D) Pain perception, management expectations

ANSWER:  C

4. Transcultural nursing implies:

A) Using a comparative study of cultures to understand similarities and differences across human groups to provide specific individualized care that is culturally appropriate

B) Working in another culture to practice nursing within their limitations

C) Combining all cultural beliefs into a practice that is a nonthreatening approach to minimize cultural barriers for all clients’ equality of care

D) Ignoring all cultural differences to provide the best generalized care to all clients.

ANSWER:  A

5. What should the nurse do when planning nursing care for a client with a different cultural background? The nurse should:

A) Allow the family to provide care during the hospital stay so no rituals or customs are broken

B) Identify how these cultural variables affect the health problem

C) Speak slowly and show pictures to make sure the client always understands

D) Explain how the client must adapt to hospital routines to be effectively cared for while in the hospital

ANSWER:  B

6. Which activity would not be expected by the nurse to meet the cultural needs of the client?

A) Promote and support attitudes, behaviors, knowledge, and skills to respectfully meet client’s cultural needs despite the nurse’s own beliefs and practices

B) Ensure that the interpreter understands not only the language of the client but feelings and attitudes behind cultural practices to make sure an ethical balance can be achieved

C) Develop structure and process for meeting cultural needs on a regular basis and means to avoid overlooking these needs with clients

D) Expect the family to keep an interpreter present at all times to assist in meeting the communication needs all day and night while hospitalized

ANSWER: D

7. Ethical principles for professional nursing practice in a clinical setting are guided by the principles of conduct that are written as the:

A) American Nurses Association’s (ANA’s) Code of Ethics

B) Nurse Practice Act (NPA) written by state legislation

C) Standards of care from experts in the practice field

D) Good Samaritan laws for civil guidelines

ANSWER: A

8. A bioethical issue should be described as:

A) The physician’s making all decisions of client management without getting input from the client

B) A research project that included treating all the white men and not treating all the black men to compare the outcomes of a specific drug therapy.

C) The withholding of food and treatment at the request of the client in a written advance directive given before a client acquired permanent brain damage from an accident.

D) After the client gives permission, the physician’s disclosing all information to the family for their support in the management of the client.

ANSWER:  B

9. When the nurse described the client as “that nasty old man in 354,” the nurse is exhibiting which ethical dilemma?

A) Gender bias and ageism

B) HIPPA violation

C) Beneficence

D) Code of ethics violation

ANSWER: A

10. The distribution of nurses to areas of “most need” in the time of a nursing shortage is an example of:

A) Utilitarianism theory

B) Deontological theory

C) Justice

D) Beneficence

ANSWER: C

11. Nurses are bound by a variety of laws. Which description of a type of law is correct?

A) Statutory law is created by elected legislature, such as the state legislature that defines the Nurse Practice Act (NPA).

B) Regulatory law includes prevention of harm for the public and punishment for those laws that are broken.

C) Common law protects the rights of the individual within society for fair and equal treatment.

D) Criminal law creates boards that pass rules and regulations to control society.

ANSWER:  A

12. Besides the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JACHO), which governing agency regulates hospitals to allow continued safe services to be provided, funding to be received from the government and penalties if guidelines are not followed?

A) Board of Nursing Examiners (BNE)

B) Nurse Practice Act (NPA)

C) American Nurses Association (ANA)

D) Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA)

ANSWER: D

13. When a client is confused, left alone with the side rails down, and the bed in a high position, the client falls and breaks a hip. What law has been broken?

A) Assault

B) Battery

C) Negligence

D) Civil tort

ANSWER:  C

14. When signing a form as a witness, your signature shows that the client:

A) Is fully informed and is aware of all consequences.

B) Was awake and fully alert and not medicated with narcotics.

C) Was free to sign without pressure

D) Has signed that form and the witness saw it being done

ANSWER:  D

15. Which criterion is needed for someone to give consent to a procedure?

A) An appointed guardianship

B) Unemancipated minor

C) Minimum of 21 years or older

D) An advocate for a child

ANSWER: A

16. Which statement is correct?

A) Consent for medical treatment can be given by a minor with a sexually transmitted disease (STD).

B) A second trimester abortion can be given without state involvement.

C) Student nurses cannot be sued for malpractice while in a nursing clinical class.

D) Nurses who get sick and leave during a shift are not abandoning clients if they call their supervisor and leave a message about their emergency illness.

ANSWER:  A

17. Most litigation in the hospital comes from the:

B) Nurse abandoning the clients when going to lunch

C) Nurse following an order that is incomplete or incorrect

D) Nurse documenting blame on the physician when a mistake is made

D) Supervisor watching a new employee check his or her skills level

ANSWER:  B

18. The nurse places an aquathermia pad on a client with a muscle sprain. The nurse informs the client the pad should be removed in 30 minutes. Why will the nurse return in 30 minutes to remove the pad?

A) Reflex vasoconstriction occurs.

B) Reflex vasodilation occurs.

C) Systemic response occurs.

D) Local response occurs.

ANSWER:  A

19. A client has recently been told he has terminal cancer. As the nurse enters the room, he yells, “My eggs are cold, and I’m tired of having my sleep interrupted by noisy nurses!” The nurse may interpret the client’s behavior as:

A) An expression of the anger stage of dying

B) An expression of disenfranchised grief

C) The result of maturational loss

D) The result of previous losses

ANSWER:  A

20. When helping a person through grief work, the nurse knows:

A) Coping mechanisms that were effective in the past are often disregarded in response to the pain of a loss

B) A person’s perception of a loss has little to do with the grieving process.

C) The sequencing of stages of grief may occur in order, they may be skipped, or they may recur.

D) Most clients want to be left alone.

ANSWER: C

21. A client is hospitalized in the end stage of terminal cancer. His family members are sitting at his bedside. What can the nurse do to best aid the family at this time?

A) Limit the time visitors may stay so they do not become overwhelmed by the situation.

B) Avoid telling family members about the client’s actual condition so they will not lose hope.

C) Discourage spiritual practices because this will have little connection to the client at this time.

D) Find simple and appropriate care activities for the family to perform.

ANSWER: D

22. When caring for a terminally ill client, it is important for the nurse maintain the client’s dignity. This can be facilitated by:

A) Spending time to let clients share their life experiences

B) Decreasing emphasis on attending to the clients’ appearance because it only increases their fatigue

C) Making decisions for clients so they do not have to make them

D) Placing the client in a private room to provide privacy at all times

ANSWER: A

23. What are the stages of dying according to Elizabeth Kubler-Ross?

A) Numbing; yearning and searching; disorganization and despair; and reorganization.

B) Accepting the reality of loss, working through the pain of grief, adjusting to the environment without the deceased, and emotionally relocating the deceased and moving on with life.

C) Anticipatory grief, perceived loss, actual loss, and renewal.

D) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

ANSWER: D

24. Bereavement may be defined as:

A) The emotional response to loss.

B) The outward, social expression of loss.

C) Postponing the awareness of the reality of the loss.

D) The inner feeling and outward reactions of the survivor.

ANSWER: D

25. A client who had a “Do Not Resuscitate” order passed away. After verifying there is no pulse or respirations, the nurse should next:

A) Have family members say goodbye to the deceased.

B) Call the transplant team to retrieve vital organs.

C) Remove all tubes and equipment (unless organ donation is to take place), clean the body, and position appropriately.

D) Call the funeral director to come and get the body.

ANSWER: C

26. A client’s family member says to the nurse, “The doctor said he will provide palliative care. What does that mean?” The nurse’s best response is:

A) “Palliative care is given to those who have less than 6 months to live.”

B) “Palliative care aims to relieve or reduce the symptoms of a disease.”

C) “The goal of palliative care is to affect a cure of a serious illness or disease.”

D) “Palliative care means the client and family take a more passive role and the doctor focuses on the physiological needs of the client. The location of death will most likely occur in the hospital setting.”

ANSWER: B

27. Which of the following is not included in evaluating the degree of heritage consistency in a client?

A) Gender

B) Culture

C) Ethnicity

D) Religion

ANSWER: A

28. When providing care to clients with varied cultural backgrounds, it is imperative for the nurse to recognize that:

A) Cultural considerations must be put aside if basic needs are in jeopardy.

B) Generalizations about the behavior of a particular group may be inaccurate.

C) Current health standards should determine the acceptability of cultural practices.

D) Similar reactions to stress will occur when individuals have the same cultural background.

ANSWER: B

29. To respect a client’s personal space and territoriality, the nurse:

A) Avoids the use of touch

B) Explains nursing care and procedures

C) Keeps the curtains pulled around the clients bed

D) Stands 8 feet away from the bed, if possible.

ANSWER:  B

30. To be effective in meeting various ethnic needs, the nurse should:

A) Treat all clients alike.

B) Be aware of clients’ cultural differences.

C) Act as if he or she is comfortable with the client’s behavior.

D) Avoid asking questions about the client’s cultural background.

ANSWER: B

31. The most important factor in providing nursing care to clients in a specific ethnic group is:

A) Communication

B) Time orientation

C) Biological variation

D) Environmental control

ANSWER: A

32. A health care issue often becomes an ethical dilemma because:

A) A client’s legal right coexists with a health professional’s obligation.

B) Decisions must be made quickly, often under stressful conditions.

C) Decisions must be made based on value systems.

D) The choices involved do not appear to be clearly right or wrong.

ANSWER:  D

33. A document that lists the medical treatment a person chooses to refuse if unable to make decisions is the:

A) Durable power of attorney

B) Informed consent

C) Living will

D) Advance directives

ANSWER: D

34. Which statement about an institutional ethics committee is correct?

A) The ethics committee is an additional resource for clients and health care professionals.

B) The ethics committee relieves health care professionals from dealing with ethical issues.

C) The ethics committee would be the first option in addressing an ethical dilemma.

D) The ethics committee replaces decision making by the client and health care providers.

ANSWER: A

35. The nurse is working with parents of a seriously ill newborn. Surgery has been proposed for the infant, but the chances of success are unclear. In helping the parents resolve this ethical conflict, the nurse knows that the first step is:

A) Exploring reasonable courses of action

B) Collecting all available information about the situation

C) Clarifying values related to the cause of the dilemma.

D) Identifying people who can solve the difficulty.

ANSWER: B

36. Miss Mary, an 88-year old woman, believes that life should not be prolonged when hope is gone. She has decided that she does not want extraordinary measures taken when her life is at its end. Because she feels this way, she has talked with her daughter about her desires, completing a living will and left directions with her physician. This is an example of:

A) Affirming a value

B) Choosing a value

C) Prizing a value

D) Reflecting a value

ANSWER: C

37. The scope of nursing practice is legally defined by:

A) State nurses practice acts

B) Professional nursing organizations

C) Hospital policy and procedure manuals

D) Physicians in the employing institutions

ANSWER: A

38. A student nurse who is employed as a nursing assistant may perform any functions that:

A) Have been learned about in school

B) re expected of a nurse at that level

C) Are identified in the positions job description

D) Require technical rather than professional skill.

ANSWER: C

39. A confused client who fell out of bed because side rails were not used is an example of which type of liability?

A) Felony

B) Assault

C) Battery

D) Negligence

ANSWER: D

40. The nurse puts a restraint jacket on a client without the client’s permission and without the physicians order. The nurse may be guilty of:

A) Assault

B) Battery

C) Invasion of privacy

D) Neglect

ANSWER: B

41. In a situation in which there is insufficient staff to implement competent care, a nurse should:

A) Organize a strike

B) Inform the clients of the situation

C) Refuse the assignment

D) Accept the assignment but make a protest in writing to the administration.

ANSWER: D

42. Which statement about loss is accurate?

A) Loss is only experienced when there is an actual absence of something valued.

B) The more the individual has invested in what is lost, the less the feeling of loss.

C) Loss may be maturational, situational, or both.

D) The degree of stress experienced is unrelated to the type of loss.

ANSWER: C

43. Trying questionable and experimental forms of therapy is a behavior that is characterized of which stage of dying?

A) Anger

B) Depression

C) Bargaining

D) Acceptance

ANSWER: C

44. All of the following are crucial needs of the dying client except:

A) Control of pain

B) Preservation of dignity and self-worth

C) Love and belonging

D) Freedom from decision making

ANSWER: D

45. Cultural awareness is an in-depth self-examination of one’s:

A) Background, recognizing biases and prejudices.

B) Social, cultural, and biophysical factors

C) Engagement in cross-cultural interactions

D) Motivation and commitment to caring.

ANSWER: A

46. Cultural competence is the process of:

B) Learning about vast cultures

B) Acquiring specific knowledge, skills, and attitudes

C) Influencing treatment and care of clients

D) Motivation and commitment to caring.

ANSWER: B

47. Ethnocentrism is the root of:

A) Biases and prejudices 

B) Meanings by which people make sense of their experiences.

C) Cultural beliefs

D) Individualism and self-reliance in achieving and maintaining health.

ANSWER: A

48. When action is taken on one’s prejudices:

A) Discrimination occurs

B) Sufficient comparative knowledge of diverse groups is obtained.

C) Delivery of culturally congruent care is ensured.

D) People think/know you are a dumbass for being prejudiced.

ANSWER: A

49. The dominant value orientation in North American society is:

A) Use of rituals symbolizing the supernatural.

B) Group reliance and interdependence

C) Healing emphasizing naturalistic modalities

D) Individualism and self-reliance in achieving and maintaining health.

ANSWER: D

50. Disparities in health outcomes between the rich and the poor illustrates: a (an)

A) Illness attributed to natural, impersonal, and biological forces.

B) Creation of own interpretation and descriptions of biological and psychological malfunctions.

C) Influence of socioeconomic factors in morbidity and mortality.

D) Combination of naturalistic, religious, ad supernatural modalities.

ANSWER: C

51. Culture strongly influences pain expression and need for pain medication. However, cultural pain:

A) May be suffered by a client whose valued way of life is disregarded by practitioners.

B) Is more intense, thus necessitating more medication.

C) Is not expressed verbally or physically

D) Is expressed only to others of like culture.

ANSWER: A

52. The dominant values in American society on individual autonomy and self-determination:

A) Rarely have an effect on other cultures

B) Do have an effect on health care

C) May hinder ability to get into a hospice program

D) May be in direct conflict with diverse groups.

ANSWER: D

53. In the United States, access to health care usually depends on a client’s ability to pay for health care, either through insurance or by paying cash. The client the nurse is caring for needs a liver transplant to survive. This client has been out of work for several months and does not have insurance or enough cash. A discussion about the ethics of this situation would involve predominantly the principle of:

A) Accountability, because you as the nurse are accountable for the well being of this client.

B) Respect of autonomy, because this client’s autonomy will be violated if he does not receive the liver transplant.

C) Ethics of care, because the caring thing that a nurse could provide this patient is resources for a liver transplant.

D) Justice, because the first and greatest question in this situation is how to determine the just distribution of resources.

ANSWER: D

54. The code of ethics for nurses is composed and published by:

A) The national league for Nursing

B) The American Nurses Association

C) The Medical American Association

D) The National Institutes of Health, Nursing division.

ANSWER: B

55. Nurses agree to be advocates for their patients. Practice of advocacy calls for the nurse to:

A) Seek out the nursing supervisor in conflicting situations

B) Work to understand the law as it applies to the client’s clinical condition.

C) Assess the client’s point of view and prepare to articulate this point of view.

D) Document all clinical changes in the medical record in a timely manner.

ANSWER: C

56. Successful ethical discussion depends on people who have a clear sense of personal values. When many people share the same values it may be possible to identify a philosophy of utilitarianism, with proposes that:

A) The value of people is determined solely by leaders in the Unitarian church.

B) The decision to perform a liver transplant depends on a measure of the moral life that the client has led so far.

C) The best way to determine the solution to an ethical dilemma is to refer the case to the attending physician.

D) The value of something is determined by its usefulness to society.

ANSWER: D

57. The philosophy sometimes called the code of ethics of care suggests that ethical dilemmas can best be solved by attention to:

A) Relationships

B) Ethical principles

C) Clients

D) Code of ethics for nurses.

ANSWER:  A

58. In most ethical dilemmas, the solution to the dilemma requires negotiation among members of the health care team. The nurse’s point of view is valuable because:

A) Nurses have a legal license that encourages their presence during ethical discussions.

B) The principle of autonomy guides all participants to respect their own self-worth.

C) Nurses develop a relationship to the client that is unique among all professional health care providers.

D) The nurse’s code of ethics recommends that a nurse be present at any ethical discussion about client care.

ANSWER: C

59. Ethical dilemmas often arise over a conflict of opinion. Once the nurse has determined that the dilemma is ethical, a critical first step in negotiating the difference of opinion would be to:

A) Consult a professional ethicist to ensure that the steps of the process occur in full.

B) Gather all relevant information regarding the clinical, social, and spiritual aspects of the dilemma.

C) List the ethical principles that inform the dilemma so that negotiations agree on the language of the discussion.

D) Ensure that the attending physician has written an order for an ethics consultation to support the ethics process.

ANSWER:  B

60. The nurse practice acts are an example of:

A) Statutory law

B) Common law

C) Civil law

D) Criminal law

ANSWER:  A

61. The scope of Nursing Practice, the established educational requirements for nurses, and the distinction between nursing and medical practice is defined by:

A) Statutory law

B) Common law

C) Civil law

D) Nurse practice acts

ANSWER:  D

 

62. The client’s right to refuse treatment is an example of:

A) Statutory law

B) Common law

C) Civil laws

D) Nurse practice acts

ANSWER: B

63. Even though the nurse may obtain the clients signature on a form, obtaining informed consent is the responsibility of the:

A) Client

B) Physician

C) Student nurse

D) Supervising nurse.

ANSWER: B

64. The nurse is obligated to follow a physician’s order unless:

A)  The order is a verbal order

B) The physicians order is illegible

C) The order has not been transcribed

D)  The order is an error, violates hospital policy, or would be detrimental to the client.

ANSWER: D