Nursing Info

1. The following represents an essential element to an effective quality council: A.consultation of the legal advisor.
   B.direction from the organization’s quality department.
   C.participation of the strategic planning committee.
   D.involvement of leadership.
2. For a community hospital, patient satisfaction scores demonstrate multiple areas needed for improvement including a need to improve attractiveness of the facility, responsiveness to patient needs, and physician and nursing communication. Based on these results, which of the following would the healthcare quality professional also will be expected to find?
   A.departments are operating independently with little communication between units.
   B.administration is prioritizing and leading units to achieve organizational goals. C.departments managers are openly discuss patient satisfaction scores.
   D.employee satisfaction scores in the 90th percentile compared to other peer organizations.
3. Dental department’s monthly case review revealed 240 records meeting criteria and 150 records did not meet the criteria. In calculating the incidence rate, the denominator is:
   A.90 B.390 C.240 D.150
4. Research, Quality Assessment and Quality Improvement: A.use scientific methods to test hypothesis and statistical methods to analyza data.
   B.are considered protocols rather than projects.
   C.do not share the aspect of systematic investigation.
   D.do not require documentation of IRB approval before publication.
5. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is performed:
   A.as a preventative measure before an incident occurs.
   B.to immediately investigate an incident that occurred. C.if the severity of an incident led to a patient death. D.when there is a chance of an incident reoccurring.
6. The relationship between patient satisfaction and hours per patient day on a GOB unit was found to be (r=0.70,p < 0.05). What is the correlation between these two values?
   A.0.05 B.0.7 C.14 D.0.49
7. When a case manager wants to demonstrate length of stay data that depicts both common cause and special cause variation, which of the following should be used?
   A.Pareto chart. B.Scatter plot. C.Shewhart chart. D.Frequency plot.
8. In accordance with FDA Categorization for Medications Safety in Pregnancy, which statement is true?
   A.Category A drugs; no evidence of risk reported in humans so far.
   B.Category B drugs; evidence of risk is only in later trimesters in humans. C.Category C drugs; no risk to the fetus in the first trimester in humans. D.Category X drugs; risk is documented in animals but not in humans.
9. The leader of a quality improvement team needs to deal effectively with a conflict between two units, it is best to appoint which of the following to its membership?
   A.a human resources representative.
   B.a facilitator.
   C.a risk manager.
   D.a senior safety officer.
10. Which one piece of information is the most usefull to describe the age of population that is served in an anticoagulation monitoring service clinic?
    A.t-test.
    B.mean.
    C.standard error of the mean (SEM). D.chi square test.
11. The primary goal of risk management is to:
    A.minimize financial loss associated with legal actions.
    B.perform Failure Mode and Effects Analyses (FMEA). C.maintain an effective and timely incident reporting system.

D.identify the high risk areas of the organization.

12. A 67 years old diabetic patient being taught how to self-administer insulin. Which of the following is the best method to assess this patient’s understanding of the teaching?
    A.patient satisfaction survey.
    B.return demonstration.
    C.family’s ability to verbalize instructions. D.written pre- and post test.
13. All of the following are key aspects of quality EXCEPT: A.It depends upon customer perceptions.
    B.It does not change with time.
    C.It considers customers needs.
    D.It promotes high levels of precision.
14. Regarding Meta-analysis, all the following statements are True EXCEPT:
    A.It is a statistical procedure that integrates the results of several independent studies that considered to be combinable.
    B.It doesn’t allow a more objective appraisal of the evidence than traditional narrative reviews.
    C.It provides a more precise estimate of a treatment effect.
    D.It may be biased due to exclusion of relevant studies or inclusion of inadequate studies.
15. The following are reasonable description of variation in process capability EXCEPT: A.Extent to which process conforms to the norm.
    B.Distance from perfection.

C.Degree of distribution about the mean.
D.Antithesis of quality.

16. Published articles information in scientific lournals is set in the following sequence:
    A.Title, Author(s), Journal, Year, Volume, Issue, Page(s).
    B.Journal, Year, Volume, Issue, Page(s), Year, Title. C.Author(s), Title, Journal, Year, Volume, Issue, Page(s). D.Author(s), Journal, Title, Year, Volume, Issue, Page(s).
17. Your community hospital has coordinated with local municipality authority to convert a busy intersection to a roundabout (i.e., traffic circle) to alleviate long standing condestion, but after completion it was realized that large fire trucks cannot fit through the new configuration. This is an example of:
    A.Quality assurance.
    B.Unintended consequences.
    C.Continuous quality improvement. D.System re-engineering.
18. All of the following statement are true EXCEPT:
    B.The Institute for Healthcare Improvement is an independent, non-profit organization promoting patient safety initiatives.
    C.The National Quality Forum reviews and endorses voluntary consensus standards.
    D.The Hospital Quality Alliance develops and promotes the utilization of quality measures, such as those addressing surgical wound infections.
    A.Accreditation by the Joint Commission is mandatory for hospitals that bill Medicare for
    services.
19. A team approach to assist in problem solving is most useful when:
    A.diverse areas of expertise are required.
    B.the organization’s goals are unclear. C.communication challenges exist.
    D.there are adequate resources within the organization.
20. All of the following statement about variation in quality management methods are true EXCEPT:
    A.Special cause variation is best addressed at the specific source.
    B.Special cause variation is typically random in nature.
    C.Common cause variation is also known as (internal variation). D.Common cause variation is inherent to any given process.
21. Of a quality improvement perspective, the most desirable state is when: A.Best practices have been identified.
    B.Consensus has been achieved and articulated.
    C.Clinical studies identify effective therapies.
    D.Multiple treatment options are being studied.
22. What sampling technique involves selecting the medical record of every fifth patient undergoing Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) ?
    A.Convenience. B.Stratified. C.Simple. D.Systematic.
23. All of the following are presently components of National Quality Measures for Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI) EXCEPT:
    A.Aspirin at arrival.
    B.Beta blocker prescribed at discharge.
    C.ACEI (Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors) or ARB (Angiotensin Receptor Blockers) for left ventricular systolic dysfunction.
    D.Long-term lipid-lowering therapy adherence.
24. A utilization management department of a community hospital has collcted data on the length of stay and readmission rates. When compared to benchmarks, the length of stay rates are found to be higher and readmission rates are lower. Which of the following is the next step?
    A.Conduct a cost-benefit analysis.
    B.Display readmission rates with a run chart. C.Investigate the length of stay rates.
    D.Identify additional benchmarks to compare the data. 25. Meaningful quality process measures must be: A.feasible and explainable.
    B.relevant and explainable.
    C.valid and identifiable.
    D.relevant and valid.
25. What is “iatrogenic illness” ? A.Illness of the eye.
    B.Illness caused by iatro-genetic factors.

C.Illness caused by not enough iron in the blood supply.
D.Illness caused by doctors.

27. All of the following are essential to the implementation of an effictive quality improvement project EXCEPT:
    A.The hospital CEO and CFO.
    B.Support and resources from the senior administration.
    C.A clear charge and purpose for the group.
    D.A timeline for work completion and pre-determined reporting structure.
28. When evaluating the components of an existing medication utilization system, priority attention should be given to those steps that:
    A.occur within the pharmacy department. B.are the least prone to variation.
    C.cannot be easily observed “down stream”. D.have highly functional checks and balances.
29. Which one piece of information is the most useful to describe the age of the population that is served in a vaccination clinic?
    A.Pie chart.
    B.Radar chart. C.Gantt chart. D.Scatter plot.
30. Which of the following is the most practical and mandatory element of the process of developing quality measures for use in the healthcare setting?

A.Clinical trials.
B.Evidence-based guidelines. C.Hospital/physician quality measures. D.Pay for performance.

31. What are “psychic” externalities?
    A.External costs and benefits to society from having clairvoyants around.
    B.External costs and benefits associated with caring about other people.
    C.External costs and benefits from being at risk of catching diseases from other people. D.External costs and benefits from curing other people.
32. In evaluating “long waiting times,” a healthcare quality professional best demonstrates components related to staffing, methods, measures, materials, and equipment utilizing a
    A.run chart. B.histogram.
    C.pie chart. D.Ishikawa diagram.
33. Fall prevention programs should include all of the following EXCEPT: A.Assessment/reassessment criteria.
    B.An evidence-based risk assessment tool.
    C.Reimbursement criteria.
    D.Postfall assessment criteria.
34. Two hospitals A&B has recently been merged. After 8 months it has been noted that Hospital A has successfully transitioned their staff to new organization values, while Hospital B is still struggling. Hospital A’ success can be best attributed to
    A.ensuring adoption of new values by all staff. B.support of both hospitals’ mission statements. C.acceptance of the new mission and vision statements. D.integration of technology and databases.
35. An emergency department tracks patient’s mean waiting time from arrival to physician assessment. Data is plotted using a run chart. Which of the following shows a true statistical increase in treatment delays?
    A. 7 consecutive descending data points.
    B. 8 consecutive ascending data points.
    C. data points are close to the mean line. D. a zigzag pattern of 10 data points.
36. The two major responsibilities of the FDA for both drugs and devices are A.quality and affordability.
    B.safety and affectiveness.
    C.availability and durability.
    D.efficacy and reliability.
37. If you were comparing two treatments for which it is easy to arrive at evaluations of both their costs and consequences in monetary terms. Which method of economic evaluation would be best for comparing them?
    A.Cost-minimisation analysis. B.Cost-effectiveness analysis.
    C.Cost-utility analysis. D.Cost-benefit.
38. The operations management transformation process in a hospital is primarily which of the following?
    A.locational. B.exchange. C.physiological. D.storage.
39. This individual developed “bar chart” techniques for activity schedualing A.Elton Mayo.
    B.Adam Smith.
    C.Walter Shewhart.
    D.Henry Gantt.
40. More complex waiting line problems can almost always be handled by:
    A.computer simulation.
    B.mathematical models. C.queuing models. D.linear programming.
41. Which of the following is NOT associated with the Baldrige Award?

A.Primary focus is customer satisfaction and quality. B.For US firms only.
C.First awarded in 1989.
D.It serves as an inexpensive consulting service.

42. The sequential and continual nature of the continuous improvement process is illustrated by the PDCA cycle. PDCA stands for:
    A.plan-do-check-act.
    B.produce-design-catalogue-assess. C.plan-development-check-align. D.produce-deliver-check-assure.
43. A time sequences chart displaying plotted values of a statistic, including a center line and statistically determined control limits is a :
    A.process flow chart. B.scatter diagram. C.run chart. D.control chart.
44. A Quality Council has created a Patient Safety Council. The council is concerned that staff may see this as another program that has been added to their busy scheduales that will eventually go away. The best way for the organization to establish patient safety as an ongoing part of the organization’s culture is to
    A.identify the patient safety goals and how they will be monitored. B.display the number of incident reports monthly with lessons learned. C.make patient safety a part of the emloyees’ job descriptions.

D.include a presentation on patient safety in employee orientation.

45. The following is non-modifiable risk factors for coronary heart disease: A.Obesity.
    B.Smoking.
    C.Hypertension.
    D.Age.
46. The best way to facilitate change within a healthcare organization is to A.communicate through group meetings.
    B.arrange presentations by senior leaders.
    C.communicate through group e-mail.
    D.involve the individuals directly affected by the change.
47. Replacing retrospective review with concurrent review is an example of A.a process improvement.
    B.a paradigm shift.
    C.an impowerment process.
    D.productivity enhancement.
48. Who is responsible for notifying Clinical Engineering of any incoming medical equipment (including loaner, demo and rental) in order to complete an acceptance inspection prior to initial use on a patient?
    A.Technical staff of Clinical Engineering. B.Purchasing Department. C.Each department receiving the equipment.
    D.Nursing Department.
49. Four kinds of cost behaviors in cost accounting are: A.Incremental, fixed, variable, and semi-variable. B.Discretionary, fixed, variable, and semi-variable. C.Direct, indirect, fixed, and variable.
    D.Fixed, variable, semi-variable, and semi-fixed.
50. The overall coordinator responsible for the strategic planning process is
    A.The Board of Directors.
    B.Chief Executive Officer. C.Chief Financial Officer. D.The Medical Staff.

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Let’s quickly have an OVERVIEW ON MANAGEMENT

Going through 2017 Midwifery PAST QUESTIONS.
There are many past question which has to do expecially with Principle of management. Let’s briefly talk about it, and answer the questions on it.

What is management?

Management can be defined as a process of getting the work or the task done that is required for achieving the goals of an organisation in an efficient and effective manner.

Nursing Management

Nursing management consists of the performance of the leadership functions of governance and decision-making within organizations employing nurses. It includes processes common to all management like planning, organizing, staffing, directing and controlling.

Major Management Of A Nurse/Midwife

1. Organising
2. Staffing
3. Scheduling
4. Directing
5. And delegation

Principles Of Management

Henry Fayol, also known as the Father of Modern Management Theory, gave a new perception on the concept of management. He introduced a general theory that can be applied to all levels of management and every department. He envisioned maximising managerial efficiency. Today, Fayol’s theory is practised by the management to organise and regulate the internal activities of an organisation.

The fourteen principles of management created by Henri Fayol are explained below.

1. Division of Work/LABOUR

Henri believed that segregating work in the workforce amongst the workers will enhance the quality of the product. Similarly, he also concluded that the division of work improves the productivity, efficiency, accuracy and speed of the workers. This principle is appropriate for both the managerial as well as a technical work level.

2. Authority and Responsibility

These are the two key aspects of management. Authority facilitates the management to work efficiently, and responsibility makes them responsible for the work done under their guidance or leadership.

3. Discipline

Without discipline, nothing can be accomplished. It is the core value for any project or any management. Good performance and sensible interrelation make the management job easy and comprehensive. Employees’ good behaviour also helps them smoothly build and progress in their professional careers.

4. Unity of Command

This means an employee should have only one boss and follow his command. If an employee has to follow more than one boss, there begins a conflict of interest and can create confusion.

5. Unity of Direction

Whoever is engaged in the same activity should have a unified goal. This means all the people working in a company should have one goal and motive which will make the work easier and achieve the set goal easily.

6. Subordination of Individual Interest

This indicates a company should work unitedly towards the interest of a company rather than personal interest. Be subordinate to the purposes of an organisation. This refers to the whole chain of command in a company.

7. Remuneration

This plays an important role in motivating the workers of a company. Remuneration can be monetary or non-monetary. Ideally, it should be according to an individual’s efforts they have put forth.

8. Centralization

In any company, the management or any authority responsible for the decision-making process should be neutral. However, this depends on the size of an organisation. Henri Fayol stressed on the point that there should be a balance between the hierarchy and division of power.

9Scalar Chain

Fayol, on this principle, highlights that the hierarchy steps should be from the top to the lowest. This is necessary so that every employee knows their immediate senior also they should be able to contact any, if needed.

10. Order

A company should maintain a well-defined work order to have a favourable work culture. The positive atmosphere in the workplace will boost more positive productivity.

11. Equity

All employees should be treated equally and respectfully. It’s the responsibility of a manager that no employees face discrimination.

12. Stability

An employee delivers the best if they feel secure in their job. It is the duty of the management to offer job security to their employees.

13. Initiative

The management should support and encourage the employees to take initiatives in an organisation. It will help them to increase their motivation and morale.

14. Esprit de Corps

It is the responsibility of the management to motivate their employees and be supportive of each other regularly. Developing trust and mutual understanding will lead to a positive outcome and work environment.

The 14 Principles of Management serve as the pillars of any organisation as well as Midwifery profession. They are integral for prediction, planning, decision-making, process management, control and coordination in given out a quality care to client and patients.

Important Of 14 Principles Of Management To a Midwife

• The principles of management allows THE MIDWIFE to understand how to run an organisation.
• It also helps HER to accomplish tasks and manage situations as and when they arise in the organisation.

Leadership In Management In Nursing Profession

Both management and leadership are necessary skills, and they often overlap with one another. In most settings, the role of a manager includes both leadership and management functions. Leadership skills are needed to set the vision, and management skills are needed to implement a plan to achieve that vision. Recognizing the difference between leadership and management, however, can help individuals focus on developing their skills in both arenas. The greatest success comes when strong leadership is paired with effective management.

Types Of Leadership In Nursing Profession

There are 2 major types of leadership

1. Formal
2. Informal leader

As we attempt to understand what leadership is all about, it is worth noting that not all leadership is based on official position. That is, the title and official role of an individual within an organization do not always correspond to his actual leadership influence.

1. Formal Leader

Generally speaking, individuals who are assigned titles and positions of authority are expected to provide leadership. Because that leadership role is officially recognized, this is known as formal leadership. Unfortunately, there are plenty of individuals who have formal leadership positions but do not actually provide strong leadership. This is often problematic and can leave the organization lacking direction and purpose.

2. Informal Leader

However, there are also individuals who do not have official positions of leadership but who do exhibit leadership qualities and practices. They help create the company vision with innovative ideas, and they inspire and motivate their coworkers. When leadership is exhibited without an official position, it is known as informal leadership. This is a valuable trait for a midwife to have.

Fundamental Of Leadership

1. self-awareness
2. learning agility,
3. influence,
4. and communication

THE 4 E OF LEADERSHIP

Jack Welch, a legendary leader who has inspired generations of leaders to think beyond their imagination, helped develop in GE a very effective leadership assessment that is easily transferred to other industries. The assessment details the 4Es of leadership OF WHICH ARE

1. energy
2. energize,
3. edge, and
4. execution

THE 4 S OF LEADERSHIP

The 4 S rule in leadership.

1. Simple,
2. solution,
3. sustainable
4. and smile

Types Of Leadership Styles

There are majorly 4 types of leadership styles this includes

1. Autocratic.
2. Democratic
3. Laissez-faire.
4. Transformational.

Leader In Nursing

A leader is a person who aims to inspire people and motivate them towards a goal.

Let us briefly take a look at some past questions that has to do with management.

1. A leader who does not trust self or others to make decisions but relies on the organizations rules and policies is a……………… Leader

A. Democratic
B. Laissez-faire
C. Bureaucratic
D. Autocratic

2. The number of subordinates a superior or manager may effectively supervise or manage is referred to as

A. Span of responsibility
B. Span of control
C. Unity of direction
D. Unity of command

 

1. The third stage of digestion begins in the 

A. Stomach b. duodenum c. mouth d. small intestine

2. The premolars of the teeth are also known as

A. Cuspids b. Bicuspids c. Tricuspids d. wisdom teeth

 

3. How many canines are in each jaw?

a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

 

4. Which of these performs both respiratory and digestive funtions?

A. Larynx b. Esophagus c. Pharynx d. Oral cavity

 

5. Anatomically, the esophagus is divided into ___ parts?

A. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

 

6. The stomach has ____ distinct sections?

A. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

 

7. The largest section of the stomach is known as 

A. Cardia b. Fundus c. Antrum d. Corpus

 

8. Meissner Plexus of nerve is found in the ____ of the stomach?

A. Peritoneum b. Muscular layer c. Submucous layer d. Mucous membrane layer

 

9. Which of these produces hyaluronic acid?

A. Chief cells b. Oxyntic cells c. Endocrine cells d. Mucous neck cells

 

10. _____ lies in the umbilical and hypogastric region of the abdominal cavity?

A. Stomach b. small intestine c. large intestine d. pancreas

 

11. Arterial blood supply to the ascending colon is by?

A. Superior gastric arteries b. Inferior gastric arteries c. Superior mesentric arteries

d. inferior mesentric arteries

12. The following are accessory organs of the GIT except?

A. Liver b. Gall bladder c. Pancreas d. Lingual gland

 

13. Examples of smaller salivary gland include?

A. Parotid b. labial c. sublingual d. submandibular

 

14. The largest gland in the human body is ?

A. Pancreas b. kidney c. spleen d. liver 

 

15. Anatomically, the liver is subdivided into ____ lobes?

A. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

 

16. Excess glucose in the body is a condition known as ?

A. Type 1 diabetes b. Type II diabetes c. Hyperglycemiad. Hyperglucoma

 

17. The pancreas is a heterocrine gland whose endocrine function is ?

A. 1% b. 25% c. 99% d. 75%

 

18. The most common cell of the islet of langerhans is ?

A. Alpha cells b. Beta cells c. Delta cells d. F cells

 

19. Insulin in the bloodstrean has a half-life span of _____minutes?

A. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

 

20. The moment food enters into the stomach, it brings about a reflex action called ?

A. Gastro-rectal reflex b. Gastro-intestinal reflex c. Gastro-iliac reflex d. Gastro-colic reflex

 

21. The exchange of gases between the alveolar sac and the blood takes place in the ?

A. Lungs b. Tissue c. Blood d. Nose

 

22. Internal respiration occurs in the ? 

A. Lungs b. Tissue c. Blood d. Nose

 

23. Which of these is NOT a function of the respiratory system ?

A. Olfaction b. Protection c. Gustation d. Voice production

 

24. An enzyme produced by the lungs ACE means ?

A. Angiotensin Conducting Enzyme b. Aldosterone Converting Enzyme 

c. Aldosterone Conducting Enzyme d. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme

 

25. Atmospheric pressure at sea level is ?

A. 360mmHg b. 520mmHg c. 180mmHg d. 760mmHg

 

26. Which of these gases is not present in the atmosphere ?

A. Oxygen b. Carbondioxide c. Nitrogen d. Hydrogen

 

27. The percentage of Oxygen in inspired air is ?

A. 78% b. 0.04% c. 4.04% d. 21%

 

28. The partial pressure of Oxygen in alveolar air is ?

A. 40mmHg b. 573mmHg c.104mmHg d. 44mmHg

 

29. CO2 is transported in Blood in all these ways except ?

A. As carbon monoxide b. Dissolved in plasma c. as HCO-3 d. binded to Haemoglobin

 

30. Which of these is NOT an organ of respiration?

A. Nose b. Oesophagus C. Trachea D. Lungs

 

31. The structure that separates the two nasal cavities is called the ___

A. Septum B. Bridge C. Cartilage D. Bone

 

32. The opening that conveys tears from the conjuctivalsac to the nose is called ?

A. Anterior nares B. Naso-lacrimal duct C. Posterior nares D. Maxillary antrum

 

33. The maximum volume of air that the lungs can accommodate is called ?

A. Inspiratory capacity B. Vital capacity C. Total lung capacity D. Residual Volume

 

34. The amount of air inspired and expired during a normal breath is ?

A. Residual volume B. Inspiratory Reserve volume C. Expiratory Reserve volume D. Tidal Volume

 

35. The structure referred to as the voice box is the ?

A. Pharynx B. Larynx C. Trachea D. Bronchus

 

36. Which of these is NOT part of the wall of a trachea?

A. Mucosa B. Arytenoids C. Submucosa D. Adventitia

 

37. The area where actual exchange of gases between the blood takes place is called ?

A. Pulmonary unit B. Bronchi C. Trachea D. Larynx

 

38. Which of these is a main muscle involved in respiration?

A. Trapezius B. Diaphragm C. Sternocleidomastoid D. Pectoralis major

 

39. Which of these is NOT a medistinal structure?

A. Heart B. Trachea C. Diaphragm D. Oesophagus

 

40. An inflammation of the Larynx due to overuse, irritation or infection is called ?

A. Pneumonia B. Bronchitis C. Tonsillitis D. Laryngitis

 

41. The amount of blood found in a 70 Kg adult is ?

A. 10litres B. 2litres C. 6litres D. 12 litres

 

42. The blood makes up about ___% of the total body weight ?

A. 10 B. 12 C. 8 D.5

 

43. All the following substances are suspended in the plasma except ?

A. Food nutrients B. Melanin C. Mineral Salts D. Gases

 

44. There are 42 litres of water in the human body. If 28litres are ICF, how many litres will be ECF?

A. 20 litres B. 14litres C. 24litres D. 10litres

 

45. Haemoglobin count in an adult male is about ____ of blood?

A. 16gm/100ml B. 20gm/100ml C. 24gm/100ml D. 28gm/100ml

 

46. The suceeding stages in the development of red blood cells is called ?

A. Erythropoiesis B. Haemocytoblast C. Diapedesis D. Phagocytosis

 

47. Which of these is NOT a granular leucocyte?

A. Neutrophil B. Eosinophil C. Basophil D. Monocyte

 

48. The blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood away from the heart are called ?

A. Veins B. Ducts C. Capillaries D. Arteries

 

49. If there is neither agglutinogen A nor B in the red blood cell of an individual, the person belongs to blood group ?

A. A   B. B   C. AB  D. O

 

50. A person with blood group A, has agglutinin __

A. A   B. B   C. A&B   D. No agglutinin

 

51. People with Agglutnin D (Rhesus +) are about ____ of the world population 

A. 50%  B. 15%  C. 85%  D. 75%

 

52. Blood group __ is a univeral donor 

A. O B. A C. B D. A&B

 

53. Which of these is NOT required for blood clotting?

A. Lymphoctye B. Prothrombin C. Fibrinogen D. Thromboplastin

 

54. The ____ is the innermost layer of the heart 

A. Serous Pericardium B. Myocardium C. EndocardiumD. Fibrous Pericardium

 

55. The wave of expansion of the arteries initiated by each ventricular contraction is called ?

A. Spam B. Pulse C. Rhythm D. Heartbeat

 

56. ____means that the heart is beating too fast

A. Fibrillation B. Bradycardia C. Tachycardia D. Diastole

 

57. Which of these is NOT a pulse point?

A. Temporal artery B. Brachial Artery C. Carotid arteryD. Iliac artery

 

58. ____is the force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels 

A. Blood pressure B. Pulse C. Tachycardia D. Fibrillation

 

59. The lymphatic nodes that filter the lymph of the arm and the breast is ?

A. Popliteal node B. Axillary node C. Iliac node D. Inguinal node

 

60. The largest lymph organ in the body is ?

A. Spleen B. Appendix C. Adenoids D. Tonsils

 

61. Which is the longest phase of cell cycle?

A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Interphase D. Cell Division

 

62. What type of feedback is involved in Thermoregulation?

A. Negative B. Positive C. None of the above D. All of the above

 

63. Band of tissue that attach bone to bone is called ?

A. Tendon B. Ligament C. Neuron D. Fiber

 

64. The removal of tissue sample from patient for diagnosis is called?

A. Autopsy B. Hematology C. Biopsy D. Histology

65. The part of the trunk immediately inferior to the neck is 

A. Abdomen B. Pelvic C. Chest D. Diaphragm 

 

66. Mesothelium is found in 

A. Serous membrane B. Pleural membrane c. Mucous membrane D. Cutaneous membrane

 

67. Bone forming cells are called 

A. Osteocytes B. fibroblast  C. Osteoblast D. Chondroblast

 

68. Which of the following is multi-nucleated 

A. Smooth muscle B. Cardiac Muscle C. Epithelial muscle D. Skeletal muscle

 

69. Body membrane do not include ?

A. Dura membrane B. Pericardia membrane C. Pleural membrane D. Cutaneous membrane

 

70. The palm faces downward when the forearm is ?

A. Supinated B. Pronated C. Flexed D. Extended

 

71. Nuclear envelope disappear at 

A. Anaphase B. Telophase C. Prophase D. Interphase

 

72. The movement of the body part towards the mid-line is 

A. Adduction B. Abduction C. Extension D. Flexion

 

73. Dense irregular elastic tissues are found in 

A. Ligaments B. Large arteries C. Adipose tissue D. Dermis 

 

74. This is not an adult connective tissue 

A. Bone B. Blood C. Wharton’s jelly D. Adipose

75. Cytokinesis begins in 

A. Anaphase B. Telophase C. Prophase D. Metaphase

 

76. Muscle tissue that is short and spindle in shape is 

A. Smooth muscle B.Cardiac muscle C. Skeletal muscle D. Tendon

 

77. D.N.A replication occur during 

A. G1 Phase B. G2 Phase C. G3Phase D. S-Phase

 

78. Cartilage that is found in the pressure regions of the body is 

A. Elastic cartilage B. Hyaline cartilage C. FibrocartilageD. Pressure cartilage

 

79. Ureter is composed of

A. Squamous epithelium B. Transitional epithelium C. Columnar epithelium 

D. Cuboidal epithelium 

 

80. In negative feedback, the mechanism that detects change in  the environment is called 

A. Control centre B. Receptor C. effectors D. Adjuster

 

81. Which of these is used for grinding?

A. Incisors B. Canine C. Premolars D. Molars 

 

82. The narrowest and collapsible part of the GIT is

A. Esophagus B. Epiglottis C. Pharynx D. Larynx

 

83. The length of the small intestine is 

a. 600-700cm B. 650-750cm C. 670-760cm D. 680-780cm

 

84. The Vermiform appendix is found below the ___ junction

A. Rectocecal B. Iliorectal C. Iliosacral D. Iliocecal

 

85. Salivary glands are secreted under the following conditions except 

A. Electrical B. Thermal C. Mechanical D. Chemical 

 

86. Which of these is a wedge-shaped organ

A. Pancreas B. Kidney C. Spleen D. Liver

 

87. The hepatic artery supplies ____percentage of blood into the liver

A. 20% B. 40% C. 60% D. 80% 

 

88. Which of these is not a bone in the upper limb

A. Humerus B. Femur C. Radius D. Carpal Bones

 

89. Abnormal posterior convex curve of the thoracic vertebra is called

A. Lordosis B. Scoliosis C. Kyphosis D. Curvosis

 

90. Stratified epithelium is found in areas of the body where the principal activity is 

A. Filtration B. Absorption C. Protection D. Secretion

 

91. The following are the protein fibers found in the connective tissues except

A. Elastic fiber B. Reticular fiber C. Collagen fiber D. Elastin fiber

 

92. The structural and functional unit of bone called the

A. Lacunae B. Lamellae C. Osteon D. Osteocyte

 

93. Skin burn that result into blister and excessive pain is 

A. First degree burn B. Full thickness burn C. Second degree burn D. Third degree burn

 

94. Nails are derivatives of 

A. Stratum basale B. Stratum spinosum C. Stratum Corneum D. Stratum Granulosum

 

95. How many organ system is in the body 

A. 10 B. 9 C. 11 D. 12

 

96. During interphase, the DNA appears as a fine network of thread called the 

A. Chromatids B. Chromosome C. Chromatin D. Centrioles

97. Which of these organelles produces large amount of Adenosine Triphosphate

A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Lysosomes C. Mitochondria D. Ribosome

 

98. The type of tissue that is found in the liver is

A. Reticular tissue B. Papillary tissue C. Elastic tissue D. Collagenous tissue

 

99. The cells and glands that carried out body responses are called

A. Receptors B. regulator C. Effectors D. Connectors

100. The following are adult connective tissue except

A. Wharton’s jelly (b) Connective tissue proper (c) Bone D. Blood

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INSTRUCTIONS:
Professional Examination for Midwives
March, 2019 PAPER I|

SECTION B: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (40%) Answer ALL questions

The following are Objeçtive Test.

Circle the appropriate uption witlh BIRO. Each question counts for ONE (I) mark.

• The blood supply to the vulva is from the (a) Internal iliac artery
  (b) Renal artery
  (C) Internal and cxiernal pudendal arteriçs
  (d) (Ovárlan artery
• The bony prominence felt in Iron of the iliac crest is called the (a) lilac l’ossa
  (b) Iliac spine (c) lliac angle
  (d) lliac depression
• The developmental abnormality ol’ the pelvic bond in which one ‘sacral ala is
  nissis, is called
  (aJ Nacgcle’ s pelvis
  (b) Robert’s pelvis (c) Scoliosis
  (d) Kyphosis
• The false pelvis is bounded posteriorly by the (a) Iliac fossau (b)-4bdominal wall (e) Obturator foramén (d), T.umbar vertebrae.
• The anatomical conjugate measures about (a) 10cm (b) 11 cm (c) 12cm (d) 13cm
• The following can result in developmental abnormality of the pelvis EXCEPT: (a) Fetal compromise (b) Injury to the pelvis (c) Dietary deficiencies (d) Disease conditions
• The average blood loss during normal menstrual cycle is estimated between: (a) 20—50ml (b) 30—100ml (c) 50—150 ml (d) 70— 150 ml
• Which of the following types of pelvis is kidney-shaped: (a) Android pelvis (b) Platypelloid pelvis (c) Arthropoid pelvis (d) Gynaccoid pelvis
• The cleft between the labia minora is known as: (a) Clitoris (b) Vestibule (c) Hymen (d) Fornix
• Changes in the Menstrual cycle are initiated by: (a) Oestrogen (b) Follicle-stimulating hormone (c) Luteinizing hormone (d) Progesterone
• The matured female breast consists of how many lobes: (a) 18—20 (b) 20—25 (c) 25—30 (d) 30—35
• The female breast is said to have completed its development at: (a) Puberty (b) Menopause (c) Pregnancy (d) Lactation
• At what week of pregnancy can the colostrum be expressed from the breast: (a) 12 weeks (b) 16 weeks (c) 18 weeks (d) 20 weeks.
• The life span of spermatozoon is: (a) 12 hours (b) 36 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours.
• The main function of spermatic cord is to: (a) Produce spermatozoa (b) Suspend the testes in the scrotum (c) Transport spermatozoa (d) Store spermatozoa
• The amount of spermatozoa contained in normal ejaculated semen per ml is about: (a) 20—30 million (b) 30—40 million (c) 40—50 million (d) 50—60 million
• Successful Spermatogenesis takes place at the temperature of about: (a) 3 degree Celsius below normal body temperature (b) 3 degree Celsius above normal body temperature (c) Normal body temperature (d) 6 degree Celsius below body temperature
• The average length of the male urethra is: (a) 10 – 15 cm (b) 12 – 17 cm (c) 16 – 18 cm (d) 19 – 20 cm
• How many days will it take a spermatozoon to mature fully: (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 14
• Which of the following enzymes is released by the spermatozoon to allow penetration of the zona pellucida of the ovum for fertilization: (a) Amylase (b) Renin (c) Hyaluronidase (d) Acinotine
• After 8 weeks of conception, the developing offspring is known as: (a) Morula (b) Blastocyst (c) Foetus (d) Embryo
• The fontanelle recognizable for vaginal examination as triangular shaped is known as: (a) Anterior fontanelle (b) Posterior fontanelle (c) Latent fontanelle (d) Triangular fontanelle
• The first system to function in the embryo is the: (a) Cardiovascular system (b) Endocrine system (c) Respiratory system (d) Digestive system
• The foetal kidney becomes more functional at: (a) 10 weeks (b) 12 weeks (c) 14 weeks (d) 16 weeks
• The single umbilical artery at birth suggests malformation of the: (a) Heart (b) Lungs (c) Renal tract (d) Nervous system
• Bicornuate uterus is due to: (a) Incomplete fusion of the ovum (b) Complete fusion of the ovum (c) Multiple fusion of the ovum (d) Effect of failed intrauterine contraceptive device.
• Retroverted uterus should be suspected if a pregnant woman complains of low back pain: (a) Early weeks of pregnancy (b) Middle weeks of pregnancy (c) Late weeks of pregnancy (d) Post term pregnancy
• Incarceration of the gravid uterus occurs mostly between how many weeks of gestation: (a) 12th and 13th week (b) 12th and 14th week (c) 12th and 15th week (d) 12th and 16th week
• The major effect of the anterior obliquity of the gravid uterus is: (a) Malposition (b) Malpresentation (c) Obstructed labor (d) Delayed second stage of labor
• Fibroid confined to the myometrium is known as: (a) Intramural (b) Pedunuclated (c) Subserous (d) Submocous
• Presence of fibroid in the uterus during puerperium may lead to: (a) Prolong red lochia (b) Brown lochia (c) Pinkish lochia (d) Short gushing lochia
• Which of the following types of pelvis has all its diameters reduced: (a) Android pelvis (b) Anthropoid pelvis (c) Justominor pelvis (d) Platypelloid pelvis
• In trial of labor, fontal examination should be monitored every: (a) 5 minutes (b) 10 minutes (c) 15 minutes (d) 20 minutes
• The following are conditions that can cause vomiting in pregnancy EXCEPT: (a) Oligohydramnios (b) Acute polyhydramnios (c) Gastroenteritis (d) Appendicitis
• Pregnancy Induced Hypertension mostly occurs after: (a) 10th week of pregnancy (b) 16th week of pregnancy (c) 20th week of pregnancy (d) 28th week of pregnancy
• The major clinical manifestation of anaemia in pregnancy is: (a) Weakness (b) Tiredness (c) Marked dizziness (d) Marked dyspnoea.
• The following are classification of malaria EXCEPT: (a) Acute and chronic (b) Uncomplicated and Complicated (c) Acute and uncomplicated (d) Chronic and uncomplicated
• The major classification of malaria in early pregnancy is: (a) Preterm delivery (b) Neonatal mortality (c) Placental insufficiency (d) Spontaneous abortion
• A reflex hammer is used to check: (a) Fractured spine (b) Superficial tendon reflexes (c) Deep tendon reflexes (d) Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
• Classification of eclampsia depends on the degrees of: (a) Oedema and hypertension (b) Proteinuria and hypertensive (c) Oedema and proteinuria (d) Proteinuria and fits
• Complication of polyhydraminos include: (a) Obstructed labor (b) Prolonged labor (c) Premature rupture of membranes (d) Large baby
• The amount of amniotic fluid at term in oligopolydraminos is between: (a) 100-200 ml (b) 200-400ml (c) 300- 500ml (d) 600- 700ml
• The following are indications for the use of manual vacuum aspiration EXCEPT: (a) Inevitable abortion (b) Incomplete abortion above 14 weeks (c) Missed abortion (d) Incomplete abortion
• The Midwife should suspect diabetes in a pregnant woman with history of: (a) Recurrent oligohydraminos (b) Delivery of babies weighing 3.5-3.6kg respectively (c) Repeated abortion, still birth, and early neonatal death (d) Increased weight gain despite reduction in carbohydrates intake.
• Which of the following conditions complicates heart disease and results to cardiac failure: (a) Endocarditis (b) Pre-Eclampsia (c) Anaemia (d) Pulmonary Oedema
• Ruptured uterus is very rare in which of the following group of woman: (a) Multiparous (b) Grand multiparous (c) Primigravida (d) Previous Caesarean section
• The following are causes of ruptured uterus EXCEPT: (a)Previous trauma (b) Obstructed labor (c)Abuse of oxytocin drugs (d) Breech delivery
• Incorrect attachment of the baby to the breast during breastfeeding may cause: (a) Breast abscess (b) Cracked nipple (c) Mastitis (d) Nipple pain
• Wedge-shaped area, redness, and swelling on breast during ovary pueripurim is an indication of (a) Abscess (b) Infection (c) Engorgement (d) Mastitis
• Which of the following conditions is cause of Primary Postpartum Hemorrhage: (a) Subinvolution (b) Infection (c) Nulliparity (d) Blood coagulation disorders
• Fundus fiddling during the third stage of labor may result to: (a) Couvelaire uterus (b) Arrhythmic contractions (c) Cervical tear (d) Sub involution.
• A condition occurring between 3rd to 4th day of postpartum characterized by intense mood changes is called: (a) Postnatal mood swing (b) Postnatal psychosis (c) Postnatal blues (d) Postnatal distress.
• Postnatal condition in which there’s sleeplessness, loss of appetite, extreme tiredness, impaired mental function and concentration is known as: (a) Somatic syndrome (b) Depressive syndrome (c) Psychotic syndrome (d) Postpartum disorder.
• The following arc contraindications for vacuum extraction EXCEPT: (a) Cuput formation (b)Foetal skull moulding of 24 or more (c) Gestational age more than 37weeks (d) Gestational age less than 37 weeks
• Which of the following may be done for a pregnant woman who has had a caesarian section previously and intends to have a vaginal delivery: (a) Induction of labor (b) Trial of labor (c) Vacuusn extraction (d) Forceps delivery
• Which of the following is a destructive delivery? (a) Symphysiotomy (b) Celiotomy (c) Epilcctomy (d) UterolÖmy.
• The type of destructive delivery in which the abdominal and thoracic contents of the foetus are removed is known as: (a) Evisceration (b) Craniotomy (c) Symphysiotomy (d) Hysterectomy
• A condition in which the amniotic fluid enter the maternal blood is known as:
  (a) Mendelson’s syndroms (b) Shcchan’s syndrome (c) Amniotic fluid syndrome
  (d) Amnioticfluidembolisn
• Iniervention to corrcct slow progress of labour is called: (a) Induction of labour (b) Augmentation of labour
  (c) Assisted labour (d) Caesarian section
• Intervention to initiate labour is called (a) Induction of labor (b}Augumentation of labour (c) Assisted labour (d) Cacsarian section
• The mcthod of assessing the cervix before induction of Labour is called: (a) Apgarscore (b) Obstctric score (c) Bishop’s score (d) Hedger’s score
• Series of movement in mechanism of labour include: (a) Flexion,rotation, crowning and extension (b)Flexion, restitution,attitude and denomination (c)Crowning, restitution, attitude, and denomination (d) Crowning, flexion, extension, rotation and restitution
• When the anterior fontanelle- is felt on vaginal examination, it is an indication that the position is: (a) Occipito-posterior (b) Occipito-anterior (c) Occipito-lateral (d) Occipito-frontal
• Which of the following is a major complication associated with multiple pregnancies: (a) Oligohygramineous (b)Cord presentation (c) precipitate labor (d) Conjoined twins
• The major causes of postnatal depression are (a) Over-pampered childhood (b) High-level stress combined with low-level support (c) High-level support during pregnancy combined with low-level support (d) Multiple pregnancy
• The primary cause of enuresis in a child is (a) Delayed maturation (b) Urinary tract infection (c) Psychological stress (d) Nightmares
• The prevalence of enuresis is higher in boys than girls by ratio (a) 2: 1 (b) 3:1 (c) 4:2 (d) 5:2
• Dry bed training in the management of enuresis involves (a) a Change in parenting attitude (b) positive reinforcement (c) Treating the underlying infection (d) Severe punishment
• Thc best way to manage enuresis in a child is (a)Bchavioural modilication (b) Change in parental attitude (c) Use of anticholinergic agent (d) Give less Fluid to the child
• At 2 years the child’s brain is expected to be about what percentage of an adult’s, brain? (a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 70% (d) 80%
• The following are basic needs of a 2 months old child EXCEPT (a) Nutritionl needs (b)Aesthetic needs (c) Psychological needs(d) Safety needs
• The following are causes of pneumonia in children EXCEPT for (a) Individual variation (b) The stage of lactation (c) The length of time the breastmilk was stored (d) The time of day
• The following are causes of pneumonia in children EXCEPT (a) Staphylococcal (b) Streptococcal (c) lostridium tetany (d) Rotavirus
• Which of the following is not a behavioral problem in child?
  (a) Hand banging (b) Excessive sleeping (c) Gluttony (d) Attention seeking
• Glucose in Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS) plays an essential role in (a) the Assimilation of odium and water (b) the Absorption of sulfate and water (c) the Absorption of sodium and water (d) Assimilation of sulfate and water
• The harsh noise heard when a sick child with respiration condition breathes is called: (a) Grunting (b) Noisy (c) Stridor (d) Coarse
• In stages of growth and development, a toddler is grouped from (a) 6 months to I year (b) 1 to 2 years (c) 1 to 3 years (d) 2 to 4 years
• The infant’s basal calorie requirement per kg body weight ranges from (a) 100- 105 kcal (b) 100- 15 kcal (c)110- 120 kcal (d) 120 -130kcal
  
• Bulging of the fontanelle is an indication that the child may develop (a)Tetanus (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Meningitis (d)Measles
• Transient fear is common among children of age group (a) 2-3 years (b) 2-4 years (c) 2-5 years (d) 2- 6 years
• Trimus is a major clinical manifestation of (a)Neonatal jaundice (b) Neonatal tetanus (c) Neonatal sepsis (d) Neonatal infection
• The type of amino acids needed for the growth and development of a child is (a)-Calcium (b) Histamine (c) Magnesium (d) Protein
• The first molar tçcth of. a child ‘erupts at age (a) 6-22 months (b) 8 -20 months (c) 13-20months (d) 14-18months
• Which of the following is associated with spoiled child syndrome (a) Low intelligence quotient (b) Failure to gain weight (c) Dependency (d) Obesity
• Power or right to direct /s known as (a) Delegation (b) authority (c) Command (d) Responsibility
• Obligation to attain an object or perform certain functions is known as (a) Command (b) Authority (c) Responsibility (d) Delegation
• Strategic planning means (a) Day-to-day planning of the organization (b) Short-term planning from 6 months -to 1ycar, (c) Long-range planning by an organization for 3 – 5 years (d), specific goals be achieved by an organization within a short period
• The process of planning and controlling full operations by comparing actual results to positive expectations is called (a) Expectation (b) Evaluation (c) Budgeting (d) Managing
• The following are predisposing factors to breast cancer EXCEPT: (a) breast engorgement (b) Parity (c) Heredity (d) Age
• Which of the following is a preventive measure for breast cancer EXCEPT (a) Increased intake of fat (b) Avoid breastfeeding
  (c) Change of lifestyle (d) Avoid carbohydrate intake
• For diagnostic purposes, the World Health Organization (WHO) classified signs and symptoms of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) into
  (a) Minor and Major (b) Adult and juvenile (c) Criteria and clinic
  (d) Acute and chronic
• Human Immunodeficiency Virus affects
  (a) Blymphôcytes
  (b) Clymphocytes
  (c) Glymphocytes (d) T lymphocytes
• The best way of treating sèxually transmitted infection in the community is by (a) a Syndromic approach (b) a Laboratory test approach (c) a Standing order approach (d) a Standing order chart

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