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Nursing Past Questions and Answers For Nursing Students Preparing For Exams (NMCN)


INSTRUCTIONS:
Professional Examination for Midwives
March, 2019 PAPER I
|

SECTION B: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (40%) Answer ALL questions

The following are Objeçtive Test.

Circle the appropriate uption witlh BIRO. Each question counts for ONE (I) mark.

  • The blood supply to the vulva is from the (a) Internal iliac artery
    (b) Renal artery
    (C) Internal and cxiernal pudendal arteriçs
    (d) (Ovárlan artery
  • The bony prominence felt in Iron of the iliac crest is called the (a) lilac l’ossa
    (b) Iliac spine (c) lliac angle
    (d) lliac depression
  • The developmental abnormality ol’ the pelvic bond in which one ‘sacral ala is
    nissis, is called
    (aJ Nacgcle’ s pelvis
    (b) Robert’s pelvis (c) Scoliosis
    (d) Kyphosis
  • The false pelvis is bounded posteriorly by the (a) Iliac fossau (b)-4bdominal wall (e) Obturator foramén (d), T.umbar vertebrae.
  • The anatomical conjugate measures about (a) 10cm (b) 11 cm (c) 12cm (d) 13cm
  • The following can result in developmental abnormality of the pelvis EXCEPT: (a) Fetal compromise (b) Injury to the pelvis (c) Dietary deficiencies (d) Disease conditions
  • The average blood loss during normal menstrual cycle is estimated between: (a) 20—50ml (b) 30—100ml (c) 50—150 ml (d) 70— 150 ml
  • Which of the following types of pelvis is kidney-shaped: (a) Android pelvis (b) Platypelloid pelvis (c) Arthropoid pelvis (d) Gynaccoid pelvis
  • The cleft between the labia minora is known as: (a) Clitoris (b) Vestibule (c) Hymen (d) Fornix
  • Changes in the Menstrual cycle are initiated by: (a) Oestrogen (b) Follicle-stimulating hormone (c) Luteinizing hormone (d) Progesterone
  • The matured female breast consists of how many lobes: (a) 18—20 (b) 20—25 (c) 25—30 (d) 30—35
  • The female breast is said to have completed its development at: (a) Puberty (b) Menopause (c) Pregnancy (d) Lactation
  • At what week of pregnancy can the colostrum be expressed from the breast: (a) 12 weeks (b) 16 weeks (c) 18 weeks (d) 20 weeks.
  • The life span of spermatozoon is: (a) 12 hours (b) 36 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours.
  • The main function of spermatic cord is to: (a) Produce spermatozoa (b) Suspend the testes in the scrotum (c) Transport spermatozoa (d) Store spermatozoa
  • The amount of spermatozoa contained in normal ejaculated semen per ml is about: (a) 20—30 million (b) 30—40 million (c) 40—50 million (d) 50—60 million
  • Successful Spermatogenesis takes place at the temperature of about: (a) 3 degree Celsius below normal body temperature (b) 3 degree Celsius above normal body temperature (c) Normal body temperature (d) 6 degree Celsius below body temperature
  • The average length of the male urethra is: (a) 10 – 15 cm (b) 12 – 17 cm (c) 16 – 18 cm (d) 19 – 20 cm
  • How many days will it take a spermatozoon to mature fully: (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 14
  • Which of the following enzymes is released by the spermatozoon to allow penetration of the zona pellucida of the ovum for fertilization: (a) Amylase (b) Renin (c) Hyaluronidase (d) Acinotine
  • After 8 weeks of conception, the developing offspring is known as: (a) Morula (b) Blastocyst (c) Foetus (d) Embryo
  • The fontanelle recognizable for vaginal examination as triangular shaped is known as: (a) Anterior fontanelle (b) Posterior fontanelle (c) Latent fontanelle (d) Triangular fontanelle
  • The first system to function in the embryo is the: (a) Cardiovascular system (b) Endocrine system (c) Respiratory system (d) Digestive system
  • The foetal kidney becomes more functional at: (a) 10 weeks (b) 12 weeks (c) 14 weeks (d) 16 weeks
  • The single umbilical artery at birth suggests malformation of the: (a) Heart (b) Lungs (c) Renal tract (d) Nervous system
  • Bicornuate uterus is due to: (a) Incomplete fusion of the ovum (b) Complete fusion of the ovum (c) Multiple fusion of the ovum (d) Effect of failed intrauterine contraceptive device.
  • Retroverted uterus should be suspected if a pregnant woman complains of low back pain: (a) Early weeks of pregnancy (b) Middle weeks of pregnancy (c) Late weeks of pregnancy (d) Post term pregnancy
  • Incarceration of the gravid uterus occurs mostly between how many weeks of gestation: (a) 12th and 13th week (b) 12th and 14th week (c) 12th and 15th week (d) 12th and 16th week
  • The major effect of the anterior obliquity of the gravid uterus is: (a) Malposition (b) Malpresentation (c) Obstructed labor (d) Delayed second stage of labor
  • Fibroid confined to the myometrium is known as: (a) Intramural (b) Pedunuclated (c) Subserous (d) Submocous
  • Presence of fibroid in the uterus during puerperium may lead to: (a) Prolong red lochia (b) Brown lochia (c) Pinkish lochia (d) Short gushing lochia
  • Which of the following types of pelvis has all its diameters reduced: (a) Android pelvis (b) Anthropoid pelvis (c) Justominor pelvis (d) Platypelloid pelvis
  • In trial of labor, fontal examination should be monitored every: (a) 5 minutes (b) 10 minutes (c) 15 minutes (d) 20 minutes
  • The following are conditions that can cause vomiting in pregnancy EXCEPT: (a) Oligohydramnios (b) Acute polyhydramnios (c) Gastroenteritis (d) Appendicitis
  • Pregnancy Induced Hypertension mostly occurs after: (a) 10th week of pregnancy (b) 16th week of pregnancy (c) 20th week of pregnancy (d) 28th week of pregnancy
  • The major clinical manifestation of anaemia in pregnancy is: (a) Weakness (b) Tiredness (c) Marked dizziness (d) Marked dyspnoea.
  • The following are classification of malaria EXCEPT: (a) Acute and chronic (b) Uncomplicated and Complicated (c) Acute and uncomplicated (d) Chronic and uncomplicated
  • The major classification of malaria in early pregnancy is: (a) Preterm delivery (b) Neonatal mortality (c) Placental insufficiency (d) Spontaneous abortion
  • A reflex hammer is used to check: (a) Fractured spine (b) Superficial tendon reflexes (c) Deep tendon reflexes (d) Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
  • Classification of eclampsia depends on the degrees of: (a) Oedema and hypertension (b) Proteinuria and hypertensive (c) Oedema and proteinuria (d) Proteinuria and fits
  • Complication of polyhydraminos include: (a) Obstructed labor (b) Prolonged labor (c) Premature rupture of membranes (d) Large baby
  • The amount of amniotic fluid at term in oligopolydraminos is between: (a) 100-200 ml (b) 200-400ml (c) 300- 500ml (d) 600- 700ml
  • The following are indications for the use of manual vacuum aspiration EXCEPT: (a) Inevitable abortion (b) Incomplete abortion above 14 weeks (c) Missed abortion (d) Incomplete abortion
  • The Midwife should suspect diabetes in a pregnant woman with history of: (a) Recurrent oligohydraminos (b) Delivery of babies weighing 3.5-3.6kg respectively (c) Repeated abortion, still birth, and early neonatal death (d) Increased weight gain despite reduction in carbohydrates intake.
  • Which of the following conditions complicates heart disease and results to cardiac failure: (a) Endocarditis (b) Pre-Eclampsia (c) Anaemia (d) Pulmonary Oedema
  • Ruptured uterus is very rare in which of the following group of woman: (a) Multiparous (b) Grand multiparous (c) Primigravida (d) Previous Caesarean section
  • The following are causes of ruptured uterus EXCEPT: (a)Previous trauma (b) Obstructed labor (c)Abuse of oxytocin drugs (d) Breech delivery
  • Incorrect attachment of the baby to the breast during breastfeeding may cause: (a) Breast abscess (b) Cracked nipple (c) Mastitis (d) Nipple pain
  • Wedge-shaped area, redness, and swelling on breast during ovary pueripurim is an indication of (a) Abscess (b) Infection (c) Engorgement (d) Mastitis
  • Which of the following conditions is cause of Primary Postpartum Hemorrhage: (a) Subinvolution (b) Infection (c) Nulliparity (d) Blood coagulation disorders
  • Fundus fiddling during the third stage of labor may result to: (a) Couvelaire uterus (b) Arrhythmic contractions (c) Cervical tear (d) Sub involution.
  • A condition occurring between 3rd to 4th day of postpartum characterized by intense mood changes is called: (a) Postnatal mood swing (b) Postnatal psychosis (c) Postnatal blues (d) Postnatal distress.
  • Postnatal condition in which there’s sleeplessness, loss of appetite, extreme tiredness, impaired mental function and concentration is known as: (a) Somatic syndrome (b) Depressive syndrome (c) Psychotic syndrome (d) Postpartum disorder.
  • The following arc contraindications for vacuum extraction EXCEPT: (a) Cuput formation (b)Foetal skull moulding of 24 or more (c) Gestational age more than 37weeks (d) Gestational age less than 37 weeks
  • Which of the following may be done for a pregnant woman who has had a caesarian section previously and intends to have a vaginal delivery: (a) Induction of labor (b) Trial of labor (c) Vacuusn extraction (d) Forceps delivery
  • Which of the following is a destructive delivery? (a) Symphysiotomy (b) Celiotomy (c) Epilcctomy (d) UterolÖmy.
  • The type of destructive delivery in which the abdominal and thoracic contents of the foetus are removed is known as: (a) Evisceration (b) Craniotomy (c) Symphysiotomy (d) Hysterectomy
  • A condition in which the amniotic fluid enter the maternal blood is known as:
    (a) Mendelson’s syndroms (b) Shcchan’s syndrome (c) Amniotic fluid syndrome
    (d) Amnioticfluidembolisn
  • Iniervention to corrcct slow progress of labour is called: (a) Induction of labour (b) Augmentation of labour
    (c) Assisted labour (d) Caesarian section
  • Intervention to initiate labour is called (a) Induction of labor (b}Augumentation of labour (c) Assisted labour (d) Cacsarian section
  • The mcthod of assessing the cervix before induction of Labour is called: (a) Apgarscore (b) Obstctric score (c) Bishop’s score (d) Hedger’s score
  • Series of movement in mechanism of labour include: (a) Flexion,rotation, crowning and extension (b)Flexion, restitution,attitude and denomination (c)Crowning, restitution, attitude, and denomination (d) Crowning, flexion, extension, rotation and restitution
  • When the anterior fontanelle- is felt on vaginal examination, it is an indication that the position is: (a) Occipito-posterior (b) Occipito-anterior (c) Occipito-lateral (d) Occipito-frontal
  • Which of the following is a major complication associated with multiple pregnancies: (a) Oligohygramineous (b)Cord presentation (c) precipitate labor (d) Conjoined twins
  • The major causes of postnatal depression are (a) Over-pampered childhood (b) High-level stress combined with low-level support (c) High-level support during pregnancy combined with low-level support (d) Multiple pregnancy
  • The primary cause of enuresis in a child is (a) Delayed maturation (b) Urinary tract infection (c) Psychological stress (d) Nightmares
  • The prevalence of enuresis is higher in boys than girls by ratio (a) 2: 1 (b) 3:1 (c) 4:2 (d) 5:2
  • Dry bed training in the management of enuresis involves (a) a Change in parenting attitude (b) positive reinforcement (c) Treating the underlying infection (d) Severe punishment
  • Thc best way to manage enuresis in a child is (a)Bchavioural modilication (b) Change in parental attitude (c) Use of anticholinergic agent (d) Give less Fluid to the child
  • At 2 years the child’s brain is expected to be about what percentage of an adult’s, brain? (a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 70% (d) 80%
  • The following are basic needs of a 2 months old child EXCEPT (a) Nutritionl needs (b)Aesthetic needs (c) Psychological needs(d) Safety needs
  • The following are causes of pneumonia in children EXCEPT for (a) Individual variation (b) The stage of lactation (c) The length of time the breastmilk was stored (d) The time of day
  • The following are causes of pneumonia in children EXCEPT (a) Staphylococcal (b) Streptococcal (c) lostridium tetany (d) Rotavirus
  • Which of the following is not a behavioral problem in child?
    (a) Hand banging (b) Excessive sleeping (c) Gluttony (d) Attention seeking
  • Glucose in Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS) plays an essential role in (a) the Assimilation of odium and water (b) the Absorption of sulfate and water (c) the Absorption of sodium and water (d) Assimilation of sulfate and water
  • The harsh noise heard when a sick child with respiration condition breathes is called: (a) Grunting (b) Noisy (c) Stridor (d) Coarse
  • In stages of growth and development, a toddler is grouped from (a) 6 months to I year (b) 1 to 2 years (c) 1 to 3 years (d) 2 to 4 years
  • The infant’s basal calorie requirement per kg body weight ranges from (a) 100- 105 kcal (b) 100- 15 kcal (c)110- 120 kcal (d) 120 -130kcal
  • Bulging of the fontanelle is an indication that the child may develop (a)Tetanus (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Meningitis (d)Measles
  • Transient fear is common among children of age group (a) 2-3 years (b) 2-4 years (c) 2-5 years (d) 2- 6 years
  • Trimus is a major clinical manifestation of (a)Neonatal jaundice (b) Neonatal tetanus (c) Neonatal sepsis (d) Neonatal infection
  • The type of amino acids needed for the growth and development of a child is (a)-Calcium (b) Histamine (c) Magnesium (d) Protein
  • The first molar tçcth of. a child ‘erupts at age (a) 6-22 months (b) 8 -20 months (c) 13-20months (d) 14-18months
  • Which of the following is associated with spoiled child syndrome (a) Low intelligence quotient (b) Failure to gain weight (c) Dependency (d) Obesity
  • Power or right to direct /s known as (a) Delegation (b) authority (c) Command (d) Responsibility
  • Obligation to attain an object or perform certain functions is known as (a) Command (b) Authority (c) Responsibility (d) Delegation
  • Strategic planning means (a) Day-to-day planning of the organization (b) Short-term planning from 6 months -to 1ycar, (c) Long-range planning by an organization for 3 – 5 years (d), specific goals be achieved by an organization within a short period
  • The process of planning and controlling full operations by comparing actual results to positive expectations is called (a) Expectation (b) Evaluation (c) Budgeting (d) Managing
  • The following are predisposing factors to breast cancer EXCEPT: (a) breast engorgement (b) Parity (c) Heredity (d) Age
  • Which of the following is a preventive measure for breast cancer EXCEPT (a) Increased intake of fat (b) Avoid breastfeeding
    (c) Change of lifestyle (d) Avoid carbohydrate intake
  • For diagnostic purposes, the World Health Organization (WHO) classified signs and symptoms of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) into
    (a) Minor and Major (b) Adult and juvenile (c) Criteria and clinic
    (d) Acute and chronic
  • Human Immunodeficiency Virus affects
    (a) Blymphôcytes
    (b) Clymphocytes
    (c) Glymphocytes (d) T lymphocytes
  • The best way of treating sèxually transmitted infection in the community is by (a) a Syndromic approach (b) a Laboratory test approach (c) a Standing order approach (d) a Standing order chart

Click here to see Midwifery Exam 2023 Past Questions

NURSING AND MIDWIFERY COUNCIL OF NIGERIA

0


INSTRUCTIONS:
Professional Examination for Midwives
March, 2019 PAPER I|

SECTION B: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (40%) Answer ALL questions

The following are Objeçtive Test.

Circle the appropriate uption witlh BIRO. I c h question counts for ONE (I) marks.

  • The blood supply to the vulva is from the (a) Internal iliac artery
    (b) Renal artery
    (C) Internal and cxiernal pudendal arteriçs
    (d) (Ovárlan artery
  • The bony prominence felt in Iron of the iliac crest is called the (a) lilac l’ossa
    (b) Iliac spine (c) lliac angle
    (d) lliac depression
  • The developmental abnormality ol’ the pelvic bond in which one ‘sacral ala is
    nissis, is called
    (aJ Nacgcle’ s pelvis
    (b) Robert’s pelvis (c) Scoliosis
    (d) Kyphosis
  • The false pelvis is bounded posteriorly by the (a) Iliac fossau (b)-4bdominal wall (e) Obturator foramén (d), T.umbar vertebrae.
  • The anatomical conjugate measures about (a) 10cm (b) 11 cm (c) 12cm (d) 13cm
  • The following can result in developmental abnormality of the pelvis EXCEPT: (a) Fetal compromise (b) Injury to the pelvis (c) Dietary deficiencies (d) Disease conditions
  • The average blood loss during normal menstrual cycle is estimated between: (a) 20—50ml (b) 30—100ml (c) 50—150 ml (d) 70— 150 ml
  • Which of the following types of pelvis is kidney-shaped: (a) Android pelvis (b) Platypelloid pelvis (c) Arthropoid pelvis (d) Gynaccoid pelvis
  • The cleft between the labia minora is known as: (a) Clitoris (b) Vestibule (c) Hymen (d) Fornix
  • Changes in the Menstrual cycle are initiated by: (a) Oestrogen (b) Follicle-stimulating hormone (c) Luteinizing hormone (d) Progesterone
  • The matured female breast consists of how many lobes: (a) 18—20 (b) 20—25 (c) 25—30 (d) 30—35
  • The female breast is said to have completed its development at: (a) Puberty (b) Menopause (c) Pregnancy (d) Lactation
  • At what week of pregnancy can the colostrum be expressed from the breast: (a) 12 weeks (b) 16 weeks (c) 18 weeks (d) 20 weeks.
  • The life span of spermatozoon is: (a) 12 hours (b) 36 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours.
  • The main function of spermatic cord is to: (a) Produce spermatozoa (b) Suspend the testes in the scrotum (c) Transport spermatozoa (d) Store spermatozoa
  • The amount of spermatozoa contained in normal ejaculated semen per ml is about: (a) 20—30 million (b) 30—40 million (c) 40—50 million (d) 50—60 million
  • Successful Spermatogenesis takes place at the temperature of about: (a) 3 degree Celsius below normal body temperature (b) 3 degree Celsius above normal body temperature (c) Normal body temperature (d) 6 degree Celsius below body temperature
  • The average length of the male urethra is: (a) 10 – 15 cm (b) 12 – 17 cm (c) 16 – 18 cm (d) 19 – 20 cm
  • How many days will it take a spermatozoon to mature fully: (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 14
  • Which of the following enzymes is released by the spermatozoon to allow penetration of the zona pellucida of the ovum for fertilization: (a) Amylase (b) Renin (c) Hyaluronidase (d) Acinotine
  • After 8 weeks of conception, the developing offspring is known as: (a) Morula (b) Blastocyst (c) Foetus (d) Embryo
  • The fontanelle recognizable for vaginal examination as triangular shaped is known as: (a) Anterior fontanelle (b) Posterior fontanelle (c) Latent fontanelle (d) Triangular fontanelle
  • The first system to function in the embryo is the: (a) Cardiovascular system (b) Endocrine system (c) Respiratory system (d) Digestive system
  • The foetal kidney becomes more functional at: (a) 10 weeks (b) 12 weeks (c) 14 weeks (d) 16 weeks
  • The single umbilical artery at birth suggests malformation of the: (a) Heart (b) Lungs (c) Renal tract (d) Nervous system
  • Bicornuate uterus is due to: (a) Incomplete fusion of the ovum (b) Complete fusion of the ovum (c) Multiple fusion of the ovum (d) Effect of failed intrauterine contraceptive device.
  • Retroverted uterus should be suspected if a pregnant woman complains of low back pain: (a) Early weeks of pregnancy (b) Middle weeks of pregnancy (c) Late weeks of pregnancy (d) Post term pregnancy
  • Incarceration of the gravid uterus occurs mostly between how many weeks of gestation: (a) 12th and 13th week (b) 12th and 14th week (c) 12th and 15th week (d) 12th and 16th week
  • The major effect of the anterior obliquity of the gravid uterus is: (a) Malposition (b) Malpresentation (c) Obstructed labor (d) Delayed second stage of labor
  • Fibroid confined to the myometrium is known as: (a) Intramural (b) Pedunuclated (c) Subserous (d) Submocous
  • Presence of fibroid in the uterus during puerperium may lead to: (a) Prolong red lochia (b) Brown lochia (c) Pinkish lochia (d) Short gushing lochia
  • Which of the following types of pelvis has all its diameters reduced: (a) Android pelvis (b) Anthropoid pelvis (c) Justominor pelvis (d) Platypelloid pelvis

College Of Nursing Sciences, Enugu (National Orthopedic Hospital) 2024/2025 Admission Forms Out

Admission Forms for 2024/2025 academic session into the following programs are out:

  • Basic Nursing
  • Basic Midwifery
  • Post Basic Nursing (Orthopedic/Burns, and Plastic)

Admission Requirements

  • Must be 16 years and above at the time of application.
  • Must obtain in not more than two (2) sittings O’Level Credit Passes in Chemistry, Mathematics, Physics, Biology, and English Language from WAEC, NECO, GCE, or at one sitting from NABTEB.
  • Birth Certification/ Declaration of Age (Not Baptismal Card).
  • Testimonial from the last school attended.
  • Marriage Certificate (if married)
  • Two (2) recent passport photographs
  • Mode of Identification (NIN, PVC, Driver’s License, or International Passport)
  • Basic Nursing Certificate License (for Post Basic Nursing Applicants only)
  • Original/ Photocopies of all relevant documents will be sighted during interviews.

Date For Sales Of Forms

Sales of forms will start on Wednesday, 19th June, and close on 30th August 2024.

How To Apply

  • Pay via Remita the sum of N22,500 (Cost for Admission form and Examination fee) in favor of National Orthopedic Hospital, Enugu
  • NB:
  • To generate Remita, visit www.remita.net
  • Select pay a biller
  • Type against “who to pay” National Orthopedic Hospital, Enugu.
  • Select POS Collections under Services Purpose.
  • Complete the form and click submit.
  • Use any of the remita channels to pay. (you may approach any ICT staff at ICT Lab for assistance).
  • Proceed to the office of the Registrar for
  • Confirmation of your payment via Remita
  • Change your confirmed Remita Receipt to NOHE receipt.
  • Collection of your application form.
  • Take your already filled form to the ICT Lab for data processing of your application form.

Examination Method

Examination by CBT on Mathematics, English Language, Biology, Chemistry, and Physics.

Enquiries

08082864526, 08033170239

Modibbo Adama University Teaching Hospital, Yola Begins Sales Of 2024/2025 Admission Forms.

1

Advertisement for Admission into Post Basic Nursing Programs for 2024/2025 Academic Session.

Application are invited from suitably qualified candidates for admission in the 2024/2025 academic session into the following Post Basic Nursing Programs:

  • Perioperative Nursing
  • Accident or Emergency Nursing

The Post Basic Nursing is a two-semester specialized training that is designed to equip Registered Nurses (RN) with theoretical knowledge and practical skills required for effective, safe, and evidence- based nursing practice.

Admissions Requirements: Applicant Must:

  • Be a Registered Nurse (RN) with a current practicing license obtained from the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria.
  • Have at least five (5) credit passes in basic science courses including English Language, Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, and Biology from NECO, WAEC, or NABTEB O’Level Examination. A combination of WAEC and NECO to meet the requirements is acceptable.
  • Have at least one (1) year post-qualification experience preferably in an acute care setting.
  • Have approval for release by his/her employer for the full-time requirement of the course.

Method Of Application

Forms are obtainable from the office of various program coordinators, Mobiddo Adama University Teaching Hospital, Yola as of 3rd June 2024, upon presentation of payment receipt of Ten Thousand Naira (N10,000) only into the Hospital’s Treasury Single Account via REMITA in respect of Nursing Specialty Training.

Closing Date

Sales and submission of forms close on Tuesday 16th, July 2024. The Aptitude Test will be held on 17th July 2024. While Oral Interviews will be conducted on the 18th and 19th of July, 2024.

For Further Enquiries, Please call: 08035877005 or 08065574218.

Cardio-Respiratory Emergencies/Cardio Pulmonary Arrest

What Is Cardio Pulmonary Arrest

Cardiopulmonary arrest is a sudden cessation of spontaneous effective breathing and circulation, which may lead to death in few minutes.

Causes Of Cardiopulmonary

  • Airway obstruction
  • Cardiac conditions
  • Severe haemorrhage and fluid loss
  • Multiple Injuries
  • Anaphylactic shock
  • Drugs and toxins

Signs and Symptoms Of Cardiopulmonary

  • Unconsciousness
  • Unresponsiveness
  • Not breathing/gasping
  • No Pulse

Management Principles Of Cardiopulmonary

  • Immediate recognition and activation of the emergency.
  • Early cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) with emphasis on chest compression (action must be taken within 4 to 6 minutes) at least 100/min chest compressions.
  • Rapid defibrillation if no response to CPR
  • Effective life support
  • Integrated post-cardiopulmonary arrest care CPR procedures in Adults.

ABC changed to CABD ( Ref AHA 2010 guidelines )

  • C: Circulation
  • Shout for help
  • Start chest compression without delay
    30 chest compression first to precede 2 positive.
  • Pressure ventilations.
  • A: Airways
  • Clear airway immediately
  • Aspirate vomitus and secretions if applicable
  • B: Breathing
  • Ventilation via mask with 100% O2 saturation delivery and bag ventilation if available or mouth-to-mouth resuscitation until intubation is possible.
  • Ensure chest movement and give 2 rescue breaths followed by 30 chest compressions, keep doing this until a portable defibrillator is available or emergency personnel arrives.
  • D: Drugs
  • IV line and maintain circulation
  • IV fluid
  • Inotropic support; Adrenaline 1mg IV every 2-5min or 3mg in endotracheal tube if no IV line
  • Atropine 0.5mg every 3-5min in case of bradycardia (< 40)
  • Sodium bicarbonate 1mEq/kg in case of metabolic acidosis, or prolonged CPR (>15min), and hyperkalemia for known cases of renal failure, crash injury
  • In case of Ventricular Tachycardia and Ventricular; For fibrillation give Amiodarone 300mg IV, if reoccurrence give 150mg IV, alternatively give lidocaine 1.5mg/kg.

Integrated post-cardiopulmonary arrest care

Correct the immediate underlying problem with appropriate management.

Recommendations

Refer to ICU to maintain ventilation
Pacing if indicated.
Any other required management

64 Signs and Symptoms of Some Diseases

  1. PTB – low-grade afternoon fever.
  2. PNEUMONIA – rusty sputum.
  3. ASTHMA – wheezing on expiration.
  4. EMPHYSEMA – barrel chest.
  5. KAWASAKI SYNDROME – strawberry tongue.
  6. PERNICIOUS ANEMIA – red beefy tongue.
  7. DOWN SYNDROME – protruding tongue.
  8. CHOLERA – rice watery stool.
  9. MALARIA – stepladder like fever with chills.
  10. TYPHOID – rose spots in abdomen.
  11. DIPTHERIA – pseudo membrane formation
  12. MEASLES – koplik’s spots.
  13. SLE – butterfly rashes.
  14. LIVER CIRRHOSIS – spider like varices.
  15. LEPROSY – lioning face.
  16. BULIMIA – chipmunk face.
  17. APPENDICITIS – rebound tenderness.
  18. DENGUE – petechiae or (+) Herman’s sign.
  19. MENINGITIS – Kernig’s sign (leg flex then leg pain on extension), Brudzinski sign (neck flex =
    lower leg flex).
  20. TETANY – hypocalcemia (+) Trousseau’s sign/carpopedal spasm; Chvostek sign (facial
    spasm).
  21. TETANUS – risus sardonicus.
  22. PANCREATITIS – Cullen’s sign (ecchymosis of umbilicus); (+) Grey turners spots.
  23. PYLORIC STENOSIS – olive like mass.
  24. PDA – machine like murmur.
  25. ADDISON’S DISEASE – bronze like skin pigmentation.
  26. CUSHING’S SYNDROME – moon face appearance and buffalo hump.
  27. HYPERTHYROIDISM/GRAVE’S DISEASE – exopthalmus.
  28. INTUSSUSCEPTION – sausage shaped mass, Dance Sign (empty portion of RLQ)
  29. MS – Charcot’s Triad (IAN)
  30. MG – descending muscle weakness
  31. Guillain Barre Syndrome – ascending muscle weakness
  32. DVT – Homan’s Sign
  33. CHICKEN POX – Vesicular Rash (central to distal) dew drop on rose petal
  34. ANGINA – Crushing stubbing pain relieved by NTG
  35. MI – Crushing stubbing pain which radiates to left shoulder, neck, arms, unrelieved by NTG
  36. LTB – inspiratory stridor
  37. TEF – 4Cs’ Coughing, Choking, Cyanosis, Continous Drooling
  38. EPIGLOTITIS – 3Ds’ Drooling, Dysphonia, Dysphagia
  39. HODGEKIN’S DSE/LYMPHOMA – painless, progressive enlargement of spleen & lymph tissues,
    Reedstenberg Cells
  40. INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS – Hallmark: sore throat, cervical lymph adenopathy, fever.
  41. PARKINSON’S – Pill-rolling tremors
  42. FIBRIN HYALIN – Expiratory Grunt
  43. CYSTIC FIBROSIS – Salty skin
  44. DM – polyuria, polydypsia, polyphagia
  45. DKA – Kussmauls breathing (Deep Rapid RR)
  46. BLADDER CA – painless hematuria
  47. BPH – reduced size & force of urine
  48. PEMPHIGUS VULGARIS – Nikolsky’s sign (separation of epidermis caused by rubbing of the
    skin)
  49. RETINAL DETACHMENT – Visual Floaters, flashes of light, curtain vision
  50. GLAUCOMA – Painfull vision loss, tunnel/gun barrel/halo vision (Peripheral Vision Loss)
  51. CATARACT – Painless vision loss, Opacity of the lens, blurring of vision
  52. RETINO BLASTOMA – Cat’s eye reflex (grayish discoloration of pupils)
  53. ACROMEGALY – Coarse facial feature
  54. DUCHENNE’S MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY – Gowers’ sign (use of hands to push one’s self from
    the floor)
  55. GERD – Barretts esophagus (erosion of the lower portion of the esophageal mucosa)
  56. HEPATIC ENCEPHALOPATHY – Flapping tremors
  57. HYDROCEPHALUS – Bossing sign (prominent forehead)
  58. INCREASE ICP – HYPERtension BRADYpnea BRADYcardia (Cushing’s Triad)
  59. SHOCK – HYPOtension TACHYpnea TACHYcardia
  60. MENIERE’S DSE – Vertigo, Tinnitus
  61. CYSTITIS – burning on urination
  62. HYPOCALCEMIA – Chvostek and Trosseaus sign
  63. ULCERATIVE COLITIS – recurrent bloody diarrhea
  64. LYME’S DSE – Bull’s eye rash
    Ottorhea s/s of basilar fracture

Public Health Specialist (Epidemiology) at World Health Organization (WHO)

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Contract Duration (Years, Months, Days): 1

Job Posting

Jun 8, 2024, 7:34:16 AM

Closing Date

Jun 29, 2024, 10:59:00 PM

Primary Location

Nigeria-Abuja

Organization

World Health Organization and Other Entities

Schedule

Full-time

IMPORTANT NOTICE:

Please note that the deadline for receipt of applications indicated above reflects your personal device’s system settings.

OBJECTIVES OF THE PROGRAMME:

The incumbent will enhance national capacity in overall disease prevention and control by collaborating on the development and implementation of national, public health Programmes and strategies on surveillance and response which may include emerging and re-emerging infectious diseases. This may also serve to strengthen early detection, verification and rapid response to epidemics and other public health events of national or international concern.

DESCRIPTION OF DUTIES

The incumbent will perform all, or part of the following, and other related responsibilities as required by the needs of the office.1.

Advance coordination with all technical focal points at regional and headquarters levels, under the guidance of the head of the WHO country office.2.

Provide authoritative advice to national public health authorities and lead the epidemiological work of the country office that under pins policy formulation.

Support relevant teams on building core capacities for surveillance, early detection, verification and rapid response to epidemics and other public health events of international concern, as required in the International Health Regulations (IHR) 2005.

Ensure that the WHO Country Office has access to all relevant existing country-specific health-related data.

This includes national and subnational datasets, such as demographics of populations affected by specific diseases (relevant age,gender, etc.) and time trends.

Analyze such data sets to provide additional insights on the country’s health context and epidemiological situation.

Serve as focalperson for all internal and external requests related to country-specific data. As needed, ensure government agreement for the use and dissemination of such data.

Assist the government and relevant institutions on the enhancement of national capacities in epidemic and disease-trends’ forecasting and detection systems, including epidemiology and laboratory surveillance for monitoring and evaluating the core surveillance and real-time analysis of outbreak intelligence data.

Lead and coordinate the development of training courses for public health professionals on epidemiological surveillance, outbreak investigation, and/or the improvement of related data management.

Oversee the WHO Office’s support to the government in conducting field investigations of public health events. when required by the specific country or health situation.

Collaborate with Health Emergency teams to promote WHO’s position and successfully influence national health authorities to develop infection prevention and control programmes in health care facilities, including (where and when required) focusing on preparedness and response to epidemics and pandemics.

Participate, as needed, in risk assessments for unusual health events.

Collaborate with relevant authorities on the development and maintenance of a national system or comprehensive data collection and trend analysis of public health events.

Play a lead role in the analysis, interpretation, and knowledge building of surveillance data (including virological data) through WHO and peer-reviewed publications and media.

Encourage collaboration and develop innovative advocacy initiatives and project proposals for joint action and resource mobilization to augment national, operational responses to public health events.

Act as the mainliais on between government and WHO (all levels) on country-specific data gathering and dissemination of WHO-generated data and data analysis.

Perform other activities as required by WHO Representative.

REQUIRED QUALIFICATIONSEducationEssential: Advanced university degree (Master’s level) in epidemiology, public health, medical or other studies in a field directly related to the position.Post-graduate training in epidemiology (EPIET) or similar programme
Desirable: Specialized training in public health would be an asset with a focus on monitoring impact of public health interventions
ExperienceEssential: A minimum of seven (7) yearsof work experience relevant to the position (in epidemiology including developing and/or implementing Programmes, policies, and guidelines as well as monitoring and evaluation of diseases and public health issues), with some of it obtained in an international context. Part of this must have been in a developing country context
Desirable: Experience in public-health responses in complex emergency and humanitarian crisis situations Experience in WHO or within the UN system with an understanding of its mandate, goals, and procedures
SkillsDemonstrated knowledge and professional skills in the development and implementation of public health surveillance systems.Seasoned expertise in the collection, analysis, and interpretation of epidemiological and event-based surveillance data. Strong ability to process, analyse and interpret epidemiological and event-based surveillance data. Expertise in providing technical support/guidance for a rapid, public-health response topublic-health events.Experience in data analysis and interpretation related to epidemics/pandemics.Knowledge of the communicable and non-communicable disease profile of the country. Demonstrated training skills (developing and conducting training).Ability to lead and coordinate multidisciplinary teams, projects, and programmes. Demonstrated skills to develop public-health guidelines
WHO CompetenciesTeamwork
Respecting and promoting individual and cultural differences
Communication
Building and promoting partnerships across the organization and beyond
Producing results
Use of Language Skills

Essential: Expert knowledge of English.
Desirable:

REMUNERATION

WHO salaries for staff in the Professional category are calculated in US dollars. The remuneration for the above position comprises an annual base salary starting at USD 77,326 (subject to mandatory deductions for pension contributions and health insurance, as applicable), a variable post adjustment, which reflects the cost of living in a particular duty station, and currently amounts to USD 3873 per month for the duty station indicated above. Other benefits include 30 days of annual leave, allowances for dependent family members, home leave, and an education grant for dependent children.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

  • This vacancy notice may be used to fill other similar positions at the same grade level
  • Only candidates under serious consideration will be contacted.
  • A written test and/or an asynchronous video assessment may be used as a form of screening.
  • In the event that your candidature is retained for an interview, you will be required to provide, in advance, a scanned copy of the degree(s)/diploma(s)/certificate(s) required for this position. WHO only considers higher educational qualifications obtained from an institution accredited/recognized in the World Higher Education Database (WHED), a list updated by the International Association of Universities (IAU)/United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
  • According to article 101, paragraph 3, of the Charter of the United Nations, the paramount consideration in the employment of the staff is the necessity of securing the highest standards of efficiency, competence, and integrity. Due regard will be paid to the importance of recruiting the staff on as wide a geographical basis as possible.
  • Any appointment/extension of appointment is subject to WHO Staff Regulations, Staff Rules and Manual.
  • Staff members in other duty stations are encouraged to apply.
  • The WHO is committed to creating a diverse and inclusive environment of mutual respect. The WHO recruits and employs staff regardless of disability status, sex, gender identity, sexual orientation, language, race, marital status, religious, cultural, ethnic and socio-economic backgrounds, or any other personal characteristics. 
  • The WHO is committed to achieving gender parity and geographical diversity in its staff. Women, persons with disabilities, and nationals of unrepresented and underrepresented.
  • Persons with disabilities can request reasonable accommodations to enable participation in the recruitment process.
  • An impeccable record for integrity and professional ethical standards is essential. WHO prides itself on a workforce that adheres to the highest ethical and professional standards and that is committed to put the WHO Valuer into practice.
  • WHO has zero tolerance towards sexual exploitation and abuse (SEA), sexual harassment and other types of abusive conduct (i.e., discrimination, abuse of authority and harassment). All members of the WHO workforce have a role to play in promoting a safe and respectful workplace and should report to WHO any actual or suspected cases of SEA, sexual harassment and other types of abusive conduct. To ensure that individuals with a substantiated history of SEA, sexual harassment or other types of abusive conduct are not hired by the Organization, WHO will conduct a background verification of final candidates.
  • Mobility is a condition of international professional employment with WHO and an underlying premise of the international civil service. Candidates appointed to an international post with WHO are subject to mobility and may be assigned to any activity or duty station of the Organization throughout the world.
  • WHO also offers wide range of benefits to staff, including parental leave and attractive flexible work arrangements to help promote a healthy work-life balance and to allow all staff members to express and develop their talents fully.
  • The statutory retirement age for staff appointments is 65 years. For external applicants, only those who are expected to complete the term of appointment will normally be considered.
  • Please note that WHO’s contracts are conditional on members of the workforce confirming that they are vaccinated as required by WHO before undertaking a WHO assignment, except where a medical condition does not allow such vaccination, as certified by the WHO Staff Health and Wellbeing Services (SHW). The successful candidate will be asked to provide relevant evidence related to this condition. A copy of the updated vaccination card must be shared with WHO medical service in the medical clearance process. Please note that certain countries require proof of specific vaccinations for entry or exit. For example, official proof /certification of yellow fever vaccination is required to enter many countries. Country-specific vaccine recommendations can be found on the WHO international travel and Staff Health and Wellbeing website.
  • WHO also offers wide range of benefits to staff, including parental leave and attractive flexible work arrangements to help promote a healthy work-life balance and to allow all staff members to express and develop their talents fully.
  • The statutory retirement age for staff appointments is 65 years. For external applicants, only those who are expected to complete the term of appointment will normally be considered.
  • Please note that WHO’s contracts are conditional on members of the workforce confirming that they are vaccinated as required by WHO before undertaking a WHO assignment, except where a medical condition does not allow such vaccination, as certified by the WHO Staff Health and Wellbeing Services (SHW). The successful candidate will be asked to provide relevant evidence related to this condition. A copy of the updated vaccination card must be shared with WHO medical service in the medical clearance process. Please note that certain countries require proof of specific vaccinations for entry or exit. For example, official proof /certification of yellow fever vaccination is required to enter many countries. Country-specific vaccine recommendations can be found on the WHO international travel and Staff Health and Wellbeing website.
  • WHO has a smoke-free environment and does not recruit smokers or users of any form of tobacco.
  • In case the website does not display properly, please retry by: (i) checking that you have the latest version of the browser installed (Chrome, Edge or Firefox); (ii) clearing your browser history and opening the site in a new browser (not a new tab within the same browser); or (iii) retry accessing the website using Mozilla Firefox browser or using another device.

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The Roles Of Nurses In Asthmatic Attack, Cariogenic, And Hypovolemic Shock

What Is Asthma Attack

It is a deterioration of the baseline asthma control leading to acute wheeze, shortness of breath and dyspnoea.

What Causes Asthma Attack

  • Upper respiratory tract infections (especially viral).
  • Shortage of asthma drugs.
  • Exposure to triggers (cold, dust, Smoke, etc)
  • Stress

Signs and Symptoms Of Asthma Attack

  • Wheezing
  • Dyspnoea
  • Mucus secretions
  • Cough
  • Chest tightness
  • Quiet chest and decreased oxygen saturation (severe signs)

Complications Of Asthma Attack

  • Pneumothorax
    Status asthmatics: an intractable asthmatic crisis with severe
    bronchospasm. It is managed by first evaluating ABC, with
    100% oxygen, salbutamol 0.5mg/hr IV, hydrocortisone 200mg
    IV bolus; if not responding give adrenaline 0.1mg/ IV bolus and
    magnesium sulphate 2g IV over 20min; If still not responding
    consider intubation and mechanical ventilation under sedation
    with ketamine12mg/kg IV
  • Investigations
    FBC
    Blood gases
    CXR
  • Do not give sedatives or aminophylline. Give anticholinergic such as ipratropium bromide in case of increased respiratory secretions. Monitor parameters indicating severity.

How To Treat Asthma Attack


Start treatment immediately

  • Semi-sitting position O2 to keep saturation above 90%
  • Short acting Beta 2 agonist nebulisation ( eg salbutamol 5 mg in 5 ml of normal saline over 10 minutes repeated ½ hour later).
  • Hydrocortisone 100 mg IV every 6 hrs
    Assess the need of ventilation according to the response to the therapy
  • Avoidance of the triggering agent if known.
  • Patient education on medication and other strategies

Recommendations

Refer to tertiary level all cases with failure of above therapy of
acute asthma, development of status asthmatics. Also, contact your health provider.

Shock

Definition Of Shock

Shock is a syndrome characterized by decreased perfusion
of the tissues in the body which if prolonged leads to irreversible multiple organ failure.

Classification Of Shock

  • Hypovolemic
  • Cardiogenic
  • Septic
  • Anaphylactic

Complications Of Shock

  • Renal Failure
  • Hepatic Failure
  • Metabolic Acidosis
  • Coma
  • Death

Hypovolemic Shock

Definition Of Hypovolemic Shock

This is due to loss of intravascular fluid volume (blood and/
or fluid loss).

What Is Hypovolemic Shock

  • Excessive haemorrhage ( e.g. trauma, internal bleeding, such as in the gastrointestinal tract)
  • Excessive fluid loss (eg. diarrhoea, vomiting, severe burns)
  • Intestinal obstruction (mechanical or paralytic ileus)

Symptoms Of Hypovolemic Shock

  • Fainting
  • Palpitations
  • Sweating (cold sweat)
  • Restlessness
  • Clouding of consciousness

Signs Of Hypovolemic Shock

  • Pallor
  • Cold extremities
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypotension: Systolic BP <90 mmHg
  • Temperature is subnormal (less than 35°C)

Investigations

  • FBC
  • Serum urea , creatinine and electrolytes
  • Blood sugar
  • Group and crossmatch blood
  • Blood gas analysis if possible
  • Blood cultures

Management

  • Non pharmaceutic
  • Control obvious bleeding with direct pressur
  • Insert one or two large bore IV catheters for rapid IV
    infusion
  • Urinary catheter
    Initial volume resuscitation
  • Raise drip stand or squeeze bag to increase infusion rate:
    Give colloids and/or crystalloids e.g. Sodium Chloride 0.9%.
    Aim to give 70 ml/kg body weight
  • Monitor blood pressure, pulse and clinical response: Target a mean arterial pressure ≥ 65mmHg and urine output > 30ml/hr
  • Most patients will respond to the initial fluid bolus
  • If they respond initially and subsequently deteriorate, there
    may be an ongoing occult haemorrhage
  • Consider blood transfusion (if haemorrhage is >25% of
    total blood volume)
  • Fluid should be given quickly and slowed only when BP
    rises and urine flow is adequate
  • Give Oxygen 6 L/min via nasal or facial masks if indicated
  • Continue to monitor BP, pulse and urine output.

Recommendations

  • Refer to ICU if needed.
  • Refer for surgical intervention if indicated.
  • Consult your health provider.

Cariogenic Shock

What Is Cariogenic Shock

This is advanced cardiac failure with inadequate peripheral
tissue perfusion.

Hemodynamic criteria are :

  • Sustained hypotension for at least 30min( SBP 90mmHg)
  • Low cardiac index( <2.2 l/min/m2)
  • Elevated capillary wedge pressure( >15mmHg)

What Causes Cariogenic Shock

  • Valvular Heart Disease
  • Myocardial Infarction (Right or Left)
  • Pericardial Tamponade
    Myocarditis.
  • Hypertensive Obstructive Cardiomyopathy.
  • End stage cardiomyopathy.
  • Myocardial contusion.

Signs and Symptoms Of Cariogenic Shock

  • BP less than 90mmHg systolic Weak or undetectable pulse
  • Cold extremities
  • Peripheral cyanosis
  • Poor urine output
  • Pulmonary signs (Crepitations, Dyspnoea)
  • Raised JVP

Investigations

  • FBC
  • Serum urea, creatinine and electrolytes
  • Cardiac Enzymes (LDH, Troponin, Creatinine Kinase)
    CXR
  • ECG
    Echocardiography

Management

Non-Pharmaceutical

  • Oxygen to keep saturation >90%
  • Large bore IV cannula
  • IV fluid bolus (if predominant right heart failure).
  • Urinary Catheter

Pharmaceutical

  • Diuretics if predominant left heart failure and pulmonary
    congestion (avoid otherwise): Frusemide eg 40mg IV stat
    and monitor response.
  • Management of underlying cause
    →Ischaemia: Aspirin 100mg po stat, Morphine 210mg IV/IM for pain,
    Glyceryl Trinitrite (if BP permits, contraindicated in hypotension), Thrombilysis
    →For Pericardial Tamponade: pericardiocentesis

Recommendation

Refer to ICU or a tertiary centre if the patients with cardiogenic shock are not responding to above measures.

College Of Nursing Sciences, Amichi, Anambra State Begins Sales Of 2024/2025 Admission Forms

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ND/HND Nursing Programme for 2024/2025 academic session.

Admission Requirements

  • Evidence of choice of Institution or Evidence of change of Institution.
  • UTME Result
  • O’Level Results
  • Two (2) recent passport sized photographs, preferably colored white background.
  • Evidence of birth certificate from National Population Commission, or Age Declaration.

Post UTME Documentation

This is to inform all the prospective candidates for admission into College of Nursing, Amichi, for National Diploma in Nursing Programme that the documentation for Post UTME screening commences as follows:

Date For Documentation Exercise

6th of June to 31st of July, 2024

Venue

Admission Office, College of Nursing, Amichi.

Time

9 am to 3 pm on all working days (Except Mondays Sit-At-Home)

Note:

College of Nursing Sciences, Amichi does not have any WhatsApp group created by the School management or staff of ND NURSING admission.

The process of documentation in this College is not online.

It doesn’t involve any form of online payment from our website.

Malaria Consortium Recruitment For Project Officers.

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Malaria Consortium Nigeria is committed to tackling the large number of malaria cases and deaths in the country. Working in partnership with the Ministry of Health and other partners, we lead and support three major malaria control initiatives in the country: Support to the National Malaria Control Programme (SuNMaP); NetWorks and MAPS. Our areas of focus include: Technical support for malaria control Capacity building, harmonisation and training of health workers Heath systems strengthening Behaviour Change Communications and community outreach activities Operational research, policy and advocacy

  • Job Type: Full Time
  • Qualification: BA/BSc/HND
  • Experience: 5 years
  • Location: Kaduna
  • Job Field: NGO/Non-Profit  , Project Management 

Job purpose

The job purpose is to work with State Programme Manager (SPM) to effectively manage project activities and resources. top provide leadership and stewardship to the project team and maintain collaborative links with the project’s key stakeholders at the LGA level.

Scope of work

The project officer will support the SPM in the implementation of the MDA-AZM project across the state. S/he will work with LGA Field Assistants and will be responsible for liaising with the focal persons at the Local Government Level. 

Key working relationships

The PO would be line managed by the SPM and would work with the LGA Field Assistants in-charge of the assigned LGAs (presumably within a specific senatorial zone of a state). S/he would also maintain relationships with the country office departments, including Finance and Logistics. Key external relationships would be with staff at the LGA and State Malaria Elimination Programme (SMEP), LGA health staff and leading community members and gatekeepers. S/he would lead micro-planning, training and coordination, through drug administration and supportive supervision, to reporting of activities at the LGA level. S/he would maintain close communication with stakeholders and influential persons in the assigned LGAs through the agreed frameworks.

Key accountabilities

Programme Management (70%)

Support the SPM and the state management team to lead activities for smooth programme management in the assigned LGAs in the following areas:

  • Liaise and work with the  SMC project team in the assigned LGAs;
  • Be conversant with and guided by Malaria Consortium, policies, guidelines and the SMC Handbook towards the delivery of MDA-AZM in assigned LGAs;
  • Planning (microplanning, selection of implementers at the local levels, training, database finalization, last mile distribution, MDA-AZM and reverse logistics);
  • Engagement of stakeholders including government, communities and beneficiaries;
  • Implementation (MDA-AZM) including QA and innovations, including the use of technology;
  • General management including security, HR including line management, risk management, work planning and budgeting, VFM, optimization of grant, etc.;
  • Risk Free operations including ensuring that all staff comply with MC values and start-to-finish (SFG) policies; and
  • Coordination with other levels of government and internally, all MC functions.

Technical  (20%)

  • Support M&E activities, including reporting of MDA-AZM and lot quality assurance sampling (LQAS); and
  • Support programme review including end of cycle (EoC) reviews, end of round (EoR) reviews and EoR coverage survey.

Representations & Knowledge Management (10%)

  • Lesson identification and use including adaptive management;
  • Harmonization with other partners; and
  • Representation especially at the LGA levels.

Person specification

Qualifications and experience:

Essential          

  • Training in Nursing or Public Health;
  • Five years’ experience of working in the Public Health sector;
  • Experience in programme management at the LGA/state level;
  • Excellent project planning, management and monitoring & evaluation skills.
  • Experience managing project budgets;
  • Experience in using digital data collection tools in SMC campaigns and other health programmes; 
  • Some practical experience in Health Information and Disease Surveillance Systems, interoperability, and international standards; open Global Health Information System software and open data sources, such as, but not limited to, DHIS2, ODK, KoboCollect;
  • Experience working at the LGA and community levels;
  • Experience working on campaign style interventions (delivery of integrated interventions or social mobilization and SMC would be an added advantage).

Work-based skills and competencies:

Essential

  • Good understanding of the Nigeria health system;
  • Understanding of communication for behaviour change and social mobilisation;
  • Team player and demonstrated ability to work within a team as well as individually;
  • Ability to travel to LGAs outside of state capital at least 80% of the time;
  • Ability to perform under pressure;
  • Excellent communication skills in English and the dominant local language in assigned state;
  • Evidence of being resident in state of assignment.

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