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Difference Between Males And Females’ Pelvis, And Female Ligament Pelvis

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Difference Between Males And Females’ Pelvis, And Female Ligament Pelvis

The Difference Between Male And Female Pelvis

  • The female pelvis consists of a wider sacrum and a wider subpubic angle when compared to males.
  • The female pelvis’ ischial spines are also less prominent than the male’s ischial spines.
  • The male pelvis’ sacrum is generally longer and more curved with a narrower sub-pubic arch. In females a wider pelvic aperture is needed as it functions as the birth canal during labour.

But our major focus of today is the female Pelvis.

THE MEANING OF FEMALE PELVIS

There are some structural differences between the female and the male pelvis.

  • Most of these differences involve providing enough space for a baby to develop and pass through the birth canal of the female pelvis.
  • As a result, the female pelvis is generally broader and wider than the male pelvis.

FEMALE PELVIS. BONES

There are two hip bones, one on the left side of the body and the other on the right.

  • Together, they form the part of the pelvis called the pelvic girdle.
  • The hip bones join to the upper part of the skeleton through attachment at the sacrum.
  • Each hip bone is made of three smaller bones that fuse together during adolescence:
    These bones are:
  1. Ilium: The largest part of the hip bone; ilium is broad and fan-shaped.
  2. Pubis: The pubis bone of each hip bone connects to the other at a joint called the pubis symphysis.
  3. Ischium: this is paired bone of the pelvis ( combination of the ilium and pubis)
  • The innominate bones are joined anteriorly at the symphysis pubis and each articulates posteriorly with the sacrum in the sacroiliac joints. All three joints are fixed in the non-pregnant state, but during pregnancy there is relaxation of the joints to allow some mobility during labour and birth. The sacrum articulates with the fifth lumbar vertebra superiorly and the coccyx inferiorly.
  • The bony pelvis is divided into the
  1. false pelvis and the
  2. true pelvis by the pelvic brim.
  • The true pelvis is divided into three sections: the pelvic inlet (bounded anteriorly by the superior surface of the pubic bones and posteriorly by the promontory and alae of the sacrum); the mid-pelvis (at the level of the ischial spines); and the pelvic outlet (bounded anteriorly by the lower border of the symphysis, laterally by the ischial tuberosities and posteriorly by the tip of the sacrum).

THE EXTERNAL GENITALIA

The term vulva is generally used to describe the female external genitalia, and includes the mons pubis, the labia majora, the labia minora, the clitoris, the external urinary meatus, the vestibule of the vagina, the vaginal orifice and the hymen.

THE INTERNAL GENITALIA

The internal genitalia include the vagina, the uterus, the Fallopian tubes and the ovaries.

  • Situated in the pelvic cavity, these structures lie in close proximity to the urethra and urinary bladder anteriorly and the rectum, anal canal and pelvic colon posteriorly.

TYPES OF PELVIS

In midwifery, the shape of the pelvic cradle is an important component in determining the outcome of the birth experience.

Basically there are 4 types of pelvis

  • And these are classified according to the shape of the brim or inlet.
  • Although the shape of the pelvis varies, it is not a rigid, fixed structure, but an elastic system of bones that can widen and stretch, and which is very flexible at the joints so that it can open wide during labor.
  • The mother’s mobility and position during labor are critical in order to facilitate this process and there is a lot to be said for active labor if a mother does not have what is considered the ideal shape pelvis for birth to happen easily.

Types of Pelvis are:

  1. Android pelvis
  2. Anthropoid pelvis
  3. Gynaecoid (genuine female Pelvis )
  4. Platypelloid pelvis

1. THE ANDROID PELVIS

  • It has a heart-shaped brim and it is quite narrow in front.
  • This type of pelvis is likely to occur in tall women with narrow hips and it is also found in African women.
  • The pelvic cavity and outlet is often narrow, straight and long.
  • The ischial spines are prominent.
  • Women with this shape pelvis may have babies that lie with their backs against their mothers’ backs and may experience longer labours.
  • It is important that these women take an active role during their labour and need to squat and move around as much as possible.

2. THE ANTHROPOID PELVIS

  • It has an oval brim and a slightly narrow pelvic cavity.
  • The outlet is large, although some of the other diameters may be reduced.
  • If the baby engages in the pelvis in an anterior position, labour would be expected to be straightforward in most cases.

3. THE GYNAECOID OR GENUINE FEMALE PELVIS

  • It has an almost round brim and will permit the passage of an average-sized baby with the least amount of trauma to the mother and baby in normal circumstances.
  • The pelvic cavity (the inside of the pelvis) is usually shallow, with straight side walls and with the ischial spines not so prominent as to cause a problem as the baby moves through.

4. THE PLATYPELLOID PELVIS

  • It has a kidney-shaped brim and the pelvic cavity is usually shallow and may be narrow in the anteroposterior (front to back) diameter.
  • The outlet is usually roomy.
  • During labour, the baby may have difficulty entering the pelvis, but once in, there should be no further difficulty.
  • Many women are concerned that their pelvic capacity may be limited and that they will therefore have difficulty in giving birth.
  • The true capacity of the pelvis will only be realized during labor by the midwife. Only when the forces created by the mother and baby during birth will the pelvis open to its full potential. This may take some time, but it is the only true way of exploring the “fit” between the mother and baby during birth.

CLASSIFICATION OF PELVIS BY CALDWELL MOLOY AND THEIR DIAMETERS (1933)

Caldwell- Moloy Classification of Pelvic Types (1933).

Four types of female pelves were described. Actually, the majority of pelves are of mixed types:

  1. Gynaecoid pelvis(50%):
  • It is the normal female type.
  • Inlet is slightly transverse oval.
  • sacrum is wide with average concavity and inclination.
  • Side walls are straight with blunt ischial spines.
  • Sacro-sciatic notch is wide.
  • Subpubic angle is 90-100⁰.
  1. Anthropoid pelvis (25%):
  • It is ape-like type.
  • All anteroposterior diameters are long.
  • All transverse diameters are short.
  • Sacrum is long and narrow.
  • Sacro-sciatic notch is wide.
  • Subpubic angle is narrow.
  1. Android pelvis (20%):
  • it is a male type.
  • Inlet is triangular or heart-shaped with anterior narrow apex.
  • Side walls are converging (funnel pelvis) with projecting ischial spines.
  • Sacro-sciatic notch is narrow.
  • Subpubic angle is narrow 90⁰.
  1. Platypelloid pelvis (5%):
  • It is a flat female type.
  • All anteroposterior diameters are short.
  • All transverse diameters are long.
  • Sacro-sciatic notch is narrow.
    Subpubic angle is wide.

DIAMETERS OF THE PELVIS

Diameters of the Pelvis are classified into three (3).
These are:

  1. Anterior
  2. Transverse
  3. Oblique

The anterior-posterior diameter is the line from the sacral promontory to the upper border of the symphysis pubis. It is measured up to 11cm.

The transverse diameter or lateral is the distance between the farthest points on the pelvic brim over the illiopectineal lines. It measures up to 13cm. It is the largest diameter of the pelvis (Hence option 2 is correct).

Oblique diameter is measured up to 12cm and is the line from the sacroiliac joint to the opposite illiopectineal Eminence.

Please take note of these diameters for exam purposes.

However,

“A Female pelvis is described as a skeletal ring formed by two innominate bones and sacrum and coccyx.

NOTE:

  • The pelvis is the bony canal through which the fetus passes during the birth of the baby.
  • It comprises three parts: Brim; Cavity and Outlet.
  • The Brim is formed by the sacrum posteriorly, the iliac bones laterally, and the pubic bone from the anterior.

LIGAMENTS OF THE PELVIS

The bony integrity of the pelvis is supported by a variety of ligaments that lend crucial flexible strength to the pelvic cavity and support some of the internal pelvic structures.

  • The principal ligaments are the sacrotuberous, sacrospinous, and iliolumbar, and in the female pelvis, there are further ligaments to support the ovaries and uterus
  • Trauma or stretching of these ligaments can result in pain syndromes, causing a significant impact on quality of life if not recognized and treated appropriately.
  • Furthermore, pelvic floor dysfunction, which describes wider pathology involving the entire pelvic floor musculature and ligaments, can have a deleterious effect on urinary, bowel, and sexual function.

STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION OF THE FEMALE PELVIS

The key ligaments of the pelvis present in both sexes are the

  1. sacrotuberous
  2. sacrospinous, and
  3. iliolumbar ligaments.

Further ligaments include the

  1. anterior sacroiliac,
  2. anterior
  3. sacrococcygeal,
  4. posterior sacroiliac, posterior
  5. sacrococcygeal, and
  6. pectineal ligaments.

Anterior Articulations, Pelvis, and Posterior articulations, Pelvis. Further specific female pelvic ligaments are the broad ligament and ligaments of the ovaries and uterus.

LIGAMENTS OF THE PELVIS

Pelvic ligaments can be categorised according to their associated joints and are therefore divided into the ligaments of the

  1. Lumbosacral
  2. Sacroiliac
  3. Sacrococcygeal
  4. Pubic symphyseal

1. LUMBOSACRAL LIGAMENTS (ILIOLUMBAR LIGAMENTS)

  • The iliolumbar ligament is composed of thick and strong fibrous bands of connective tissue originating from the tip of the transverse process of the fifth lumbar vertebra.
  • Here, it extends laterally as a superior and inferior band, resembling a V-shape.
  • The superior band inserts at the iliac crest, and the inferior band blends with the front of the anterior sacroiliac ligament on the pelvic surface of the ileum.
  • This ligament stabilizes and strengthens the lumbosacral joint, restricting the rotational movement at the lumbosacral joint.

2. SACROILIAC LIGAMENTS

  • The sacroiliac joint complex is reinforced by various ligaments that provide structural support to this important joint within the pelvis.
  • The interosseous sacroiliac ligament provides the largest and most robust support of the sacroiliac joint in both females and males.
  • It attaches at deep pits on the lateral mass of the posterior surface of the sacrum, extending to the ilium n a series of short and very strong fibers.
  • As mentioned above, its anterosuperior surface blends with the iliolumbar ligament. Furthermore, the most superficial fibers of the posterior aspect of the interosseous sacroiliac ligament form the posterior sacroiliac ligament.
  • The anterior sacroiliac ligament is a band of connective tissue that connects the anterior surface of the lateral part of the sacrum to the margin of the auricular surface of the ilium.

3. SACROCOCCYGEAL LIGAMENTS

  • The sacrococcygeal joint is reinforced with anterior, posterior, and lateral ligaments.
  • The anterior sacrococcygeal ligament unifies the anteriormost aspect of the respective bone bones.
  • Posteriorly there are two posterior sacrococcygeal ligaments that perform a similar function on the dorsal aspect of the joint.
  • Finally, two lateral sacrococcygeal ligaments run from the coccygeal transverse processes inferiorly to the angle of the sacrum.

4. PUBIC SYMPHYSEAL ( LIGAMENTS OF THE PUBIS SYMPHYSIS).

  • The pubic symphysis is a midline cartilaginous joint uniting the two pubic bones. Small ligamentous supports to this joint are present in the form of the superior pubic ligament and the arcuate pubic ligament inferiorly.
  • The strength and contribution to joint stability provided by these ligaments are controversial.
  • However, it is accepted that the arcuate pubic ligament is stronger than its superior counterpart.

OTHER LIGAMENTS OF THE PELVIS INCLUDE

5. SACROTUBEROUS LIGAMENTS

  • The sacrotuberous ligament is a fan-shaped fibrous band of connective tissue with great strength, providing stability to the posterior pelvis.
  • Its wider superior origin runs from the transverse tubercles of the sacrum below the level of the sacroiliac joint, the posterior superior and posterior inferior iliac spines, and the upper coccyx, downwards to attach to the tuberosity of the ischial tuberosity.
  • The average length of the sacrotuberous ligament from cadaveric dissections is 70 mm in women and 64 mm in men.
  • The sacrotuberous ligament is blended with the posterior sacroiliac ligament, which is a continuation of the superficial fibers of the sacroiliac ligament, which attaches the sacrum firmly to the ilium.

6. THE SACROSPINOUS LIGAMENTS

  • The Sacrospinous ligament is a triangular band of connective tissue that lies on the pelvic aspect of the sacrotuberous ligament.
  • It has a broad base with origins at the lower sacrum and upper coccyx.
  • It travels laterally from its base, narrowing as it does so, to attach to the spine of the ischium and has an average length of 46 mm in women and 38 mm in men.
  • The sacrospinous ligament divides the greater sciatic notch to the greater sciatic foramen and the lesser sciatic foramen, through with pass several important neurovascular structures critical to the lower limb and genital function, including the gluteal, pudendal, and sciatic nerves and the gluteal and pudendal vessels.

THE FEMALE PELVIS LIGAMENT

  • The broad ligament is a sheet of pelvic peritoneum extending bilaterally from the lateral pelvic sidewalls to the uterus in the midline.
  • The broad ligament folds over the fallopian tubes and ovaries and covers them anteriorly and posteriorly and is subdivided into the
  1. mesovarium,
  2. mesosalpinx, and
  3. mesometrium.
  4. 1. The mesovarium is the part of the broad ligament related to the ovaries.
  • This posterior sheet of broad ligament extends to the hilum of the ovary and contains the neurovascular tissue of the ovary, here as the suspensory ligament of the ovary.
  • The peritoneal fold of the broad ligament does not cover the surface of the ovary, but rather the anterior border of the ovary is attached to the broad ligament.
  1. The mesosalpinx is the part of the broad ligament related to the fallopian tube.
  • Here, the broad ligament folds over and encloses the fallopian tube.
  1. The mesometrium is the part of the broad ligament related to the uterus.
  • From the uterus, the broad ligaments fan out laterally while covering the external iliac vessels.
  • The mesometrium is the largest section of the broad ligament.

Uterine Tubal Anatomy and Ligaments. Anatomical structures surrounding the uterus and fallopian or uterine tubes, including the mesosalpinx, mesovarium, ovarian artery, ovarian vein, suspensory ligament, uterine tube, ovary, broad ligament, round ligament, ovarian ligament, cardinal ligament, uterosacral ligament, and vagina. Contributed by B Palmer.

University Of Benin Teaching Hospital Begins Sales Of 2024/2025 Admission Forms

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University Of Benin Teaching Hospital Begins Sales Of 2024/2025 Admission Forms

This is to notify the general public that admission into College of Nursing Sciences for 2024/2025 academic sessions.

National Diploma/Higher National Diploma In Nursing

Procedure for Post Unified Tertiary Matriculation Exam (PUTME) is as follows:

  • Candidates must be at least 17 years of age.
  • Candidates should have scored a minimum of 180 in the 2024 JAMB.
  • Candidates should have a minimum of credit passes in the under listed subjects in not more than two sittings at O’Level , WAEC, and NECO in Mathematics, Biology, Physics, and Chemistry
  • Candidates are to proceed to the nearest JAMB accredited center to effect their change of Institution to the School of Nursing, UBTH, Benin City.
  • Candidates are to upload scanned copies of the under listed on the portal during registration to purchase the UTME FORM.
  • Jamb result slip.
  • JAMB change of Institution slip
  • WAEC/NECO results
  • Birth certificate
  • Copies of photographs
  • Ensure you upload your O’level to Central Admission Processing (System)
  • Sales of Post will commence will commence on the 6th to 31st of August, 2024.
  • Post UTME Screening test will hold
  • Upon Admission, go to JAMB caps, pay the required fee and print the admission later.

Nursing Council Exam Preparatory Past Questions And Answers (Part 2)

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Nursing Council Exam Preparatory Past Questions And Answers (Part 2)

What factors that affect health are more stable and less easily changed?
(a) Proximal
(b) Distal
(c) Transitional (d) Intermediate

The major reason for the great differences in health outcomes and life expectancy worldwide are due to the effects of:
(a) Inclusion, behavior, and ethnicity
(b)Marginalisation, behavior, and social cohesion
(c) Privilege and power, ethnicity and social cohesion
(d) Deprivation, marginalization, privilege, and power

The aim of the Commission on Social Determinants of Health conceptual framework is to explain influences on the:
(a) Distribution of health and well-being at an individual level
(b) Distribution of health and well-being at a popular level
(c) Rates of illness and disease within a population
(d) Rates of illness and disease between individuals

Which influences does the Rainbow Model of determinants of health have as the core and the outermost layer?
(a) Individual lifestyle factors, and social, and community network
(b) Individual person, and living working conditions
(c) Individual person and general socio-economic, cultural and environmental conditions
(d) Individual lifestyle factors and general socio-economic, cultural and environmental
conditions

Unemployment or underemployment strongly influences an individual’s:

(a) Physical,mentalandsocialhealth
(b) Biological and genetic endowment (c)Cultural attributes
(d) Family support

What is the major reason that a groups health may not improve despite provision of health services?
(a) An organisational culture that supports equity (b) Staff structures within the health service (c) Culturally insensitive ways of health care provision (d) Embedding health promotion within the service

What do Wilkinson and Marmot (1998, 2003) mean by the term social gradient?
(a) Poor quality of life and lower socio-economic conditions cause social exclusion (b) Lower socio-economic conditions result in a shorter life expectancy than for those higher up the socio-economic ladder
(c) Good social networks are more evident in people with lower socioeconomic conditions (d) responsibility

Which group does the evidence show as being at the highest risk of poor health and chronic disease in Australia?
(a) People without a home
(b) Indigenous Australians
(c) People living in rural areas
(d) All of the above

Talcott Parsons’s view on the role of health services in society was that they:
(a) Promoted and maintained social order
(b) Decreased population health level
(c) Reduced legislative requirements
(d) Promoted inequities in society

Which of the following determinants has a positive effect on health?
(a) Social exclusion
(b) Highcarownershipperpersonratio
(c) Early childhood support
(d) Job in security

In which layer of the Rainbow Model are education opportunities situated?
(a) Social and community network
(b) Living and working conditions
(c) Individual lifestyle factors
(d) Generalsocio-economic, cultural and environmental conditions

What was the World Health Organisation statement that set out five areas of action to improve health?
(a) Alma Ata Declaration
(b) Bangkok Charter
(c) Ottawa Charter
(d) Adelaide Declaration

The structural divers affecting health that form part of the Commission on Social Determinants of Health’s conceptual framework result from?
(a) Social stratification and equality
(b) Biological and genetic factors
(c) Family support networks
(d) Healthcare system policy

What role did Talcott Parsons see health services occupying?
(a) Maintaining social order
(b) Decreasing social stability
(c) Reducing population health
(d) None of the above

According to Kickbusch, what effect on South Australia would realizing the potential for health reform have?
(a) Reduce economics activities
(b) Reduce the need for a range of health workers
(c) Increase contribution to economic activity
(d) Increase health literacy

Which of the following determinants are found in the Rainbow Model layer Living and Working conditions?
(a) Working conditions and educational attainment
(b) Access to health services and housing
(c) Water and sanitation and food production
(d) All of the above

Poor health is viewed by economists as:
(a) An asset for generation of healthcare services
(b) A liability as it reduces wealth production
(c) Having no net effect on the economy
(d) Providing incentives for employment

Difficulty in gaining access to health care services is classified as an:
(a) Intermediatedeterminant
(b) Proximaldeterminant
(c) Distal determinant
(d) Distalfactor

Which WHO Charter included an argument that health promotion should be a requirement for good corporate practice?
(a) Bangkok
(b) Mexico City
(c) Ottawa
(d) Sunsvall

What health determinants, not included by Wilkinson and Marmot, have been identified since?
(a) Gender
(b) Culture
(c) Climate effects
(d) Alloftheabove

In the CSDH framework, social cohesion and psychological factors can be better approached through:
(a) Lifestyle and behavioral change
(b) Good healthcare policy
(c) Understanding biological factors
(d) Education and behavioral change

How much has medical care contributed to the increase in longevity since 1900?

(a) 1012.5% (b) 510%
(c) 712% (d) 1015%

Environmental health justice is described as the right to:
(a) Goodenvironmentallaws
(b) A safe, healthy, Productive and sustainable environment
(c) Receive appropriate compensation for environmental disease
(d) A productive, expanding, industrial environment

How many preventable deaths due to lack of access to treated water have been estimated?
(a) 2billion
(b) 1.7million
(c) 3 million
(d) 1billion

The effects of environmental risk, and social and economic activity have given rise to environmental health problems that are:
(a) Clear cause-effect problems
(b) Shortterm,complex, cumulative problems
(c) Long term, cause-effect problems
(d) Longterm, complex, cumulative problems

An important major projected health impact of climatic change related to the effects of drought is:
(a) Reducedcold-relatedmortality
(b) Increased in land migration
(c) Malnutrition and water shortages
(d) Fires and reduced biodiversity

Which of the following contributes to a disturbance in the balance of the microbial world?
(a) Reduction of urbanization and intensive farming
(b) Population growth and environmental degradation
(c) Local marketing and air travel
(d) Urbanisation and environmental control

Which countries are most at risk from a combination of traditional and modern environmental health threats?
(a) Low income countries with poor infrastructure
(b) Developing counties undergoing rapid industrialisation
(c) Developed countries with middle and high incomes
(d)

Which countries are most at risk from a combination of traditional and modern environmental health threats?
(a) Low income countries with poor infrastructure
(b) Developing counties undergoing rapid industrialisation
(c) Developed countries with middle and high incomes
(d) Developing countries with low infrastructures

Health services themselves impact on the environment through: (a) Waste Management Practice
b) Substantial use of natural resources
(c) Power usage
(d) All of the above

What is the main reason it is difficult for low-lying countries, such as those in the Pacific to ensure global action for the activities that are causing climatic change?
(a) Lackofrelevantdiplomaticties
(b) Poor negotiating skills
(c) Lack of economic power
(d) Unrepresented at forums

How many children from developing counties did the World Health Organisation estimate in 2007 to have died from preventable environmental causes?
(a) 8million
(b) 5million
(c) 4 million
(d) 1.7million

The World Health Organisation has estimated that unsafe water supplies and poor sanitation result in:
(a) 1.8 million deaths from diarrhoea per year
(b) 4 million deaths from diarrhoea per year
(c) 6 million deaths from diarrhoea per year
(d) 4 billon deaths from diarrhoea per year

Factors such as overcrowding, poor housing, and infrastructure in Indigenous communities contribute to a hospital admission rate for respiratory disease that is:
(a) Twice that of non-Indigenous Australians
(b) One and a half times that of non-Indigenous Australians
(c) Three times that of non-Indigenous Australians
(d) Four times that of non-Indigenous Australians

WHO have estimated the percentage of the population in industrialised countries who are affected by gastroenteritis each year as:
(a) 40% of the population
(b) 30% of the population
(c) 25% of the population
(d) 10% of the population

What health impact can the run-off from fertilised land have on young babies in developed countries?
(a) Peripheral neuropathy
(b) Reduced oxygen carrying capacity of blood
(c) Diarrhoeal disease
(d) Chronic respiratory disease

What is the estimated difference in life expectancy between Indigenous Australians and non- Indigenous Australians?
(a) 17 years less for Indigenous Australians
(b) 10 years less for Indigenous Australians
(c) 10 years more for non-Indigenous Australians
(d) 12 years more for non-Indigenous Australians

Which of the following is the best example of an area where tension exists between health needs and environmental needs?
(a) Food production and the use of pesticides
(b) Pollution and petrol-driven transport
(c) Management of toxic waste and the environment
(d) Infectious disease and food born disease
A re-emergence of communicable disease in Australia is presicted for the future, related to a warmer climate causing:
(a) Expansion of vector-borne disease
(b) Increasing bacterial multiplication
(c) Spore maturations
(d) All of the above

While developing nations continue to face increasing environmental threats to health such as poor water quality and sanitation, industrial nations face modern threats such as pollution due to:
(a) Changes in ocean temperatures
(b) Reduction in consumption of natural resources
(c) Unsustainable over-development
(d) Natural disasters

The projected health impact of climatic change for people living in Australia includes an increased in food, water and insect vector-borne disease due to more frequent:
(a) High seal levels
(b) Heat waves
(c) Tropical cyclones
(d) Droughts

What percentage of years of life lost in low income countries are due to communicable diseases?
(a) 68% (b) 33% (c) 51% (d) 8%

What threat do depleted stratospheric ozone layer and increased atmospheric temperatures present to people?
(a) Decreased incidence of cataract
(b) Increased immune system function
(c) Increased incidence of skin cancer
(d) All of the above

What year was an Australian federal department of health established?
(a) 1901 (b) 1924 (c) 1910 (d) 1923

Population health is an approach that seeks to improve:
(a) Health and equaliof ty of a whole population
(b) Health and equity in whole of specific populations at risk
(c) Specific populations at risk of disease
(d) Health and education to specific populations

In which year was the World Health Organisation (WHO) founded?
(a) 1914 (b) 1925 (c) 1948 (d) 1945

What was the belief that a healthier population could occur through developing the healthier members?
(a) Eugenics
(b) Darwinism
(c) Practical eugenics
(d) Racial hygiene

What was the main factor that prompted politicians and leaders to take action about the high levels of illness and death in the nineteenth century?
(a) Potential effectsp economic development
(b) Scientific development
(c) Financial cost of illness to the workers
(d) The average life expectancy of the working man

Theaveragelifeexpectancyoftheworkingman
In 1875, infant and child mortality rates in Sydney were 194 per 1000 live births. What was the rate of infant mortality in the poorer population compared to the more privileged population?
(a) Three times the rate
(b) Twice the rate
(c) Four times the rate
(d) Three and half times the rate

New public health signified a change from a:
(a) Behavioural to a social health paradigm
(b) Technological to a behavioural paradigm
(c) Social health to a biomedical paradigm
(d) Behavioural to a technological paradigm

What does the term prevalence of disease mean?
(a) Rate at which an event occurs within a given period of time
(b) Rate at which an event is experienced in a population
(c) Percentage of the population who experiences a disorder at a given point or period of time
(d) Percentage of the population who suffer an event

Australian governments have been inclined to use a population health model that concentrated on:
(a) Global health issues and priorities
(b) Measurement of disease state
(c) Health determinants
(d) Quality of life

Public health is organised through the Federal Government and:
(a) Non-government organisations and community groups
(b) General Practitioner and community
(c) State and local government and non-government organisations
(d) General Practitioner and non-government organization

What was the Black Report (1982) important?
(a) The report demonstrated methods of behavioural intervention for health (b) Thereportidentifiedtheneedforaglobalapproachtosolvehealthproblems (c) The report demonstrated the importance of socio-economic factors on health (d) The report revealed that most of the populations had good access to health care

Which virus was identified in 19662 and had its vaccine first trialled in 1966?
(a) Rubella
(b) Mumps (c) Poliomyelitis (d) Influenza

What results from high rates of sickness and poverty in countries? levels of investment in development
(b) Underinvestmentindevelopment
(c) Increased access to treatment for the population
(d) Decreased vulnerability to disease

When was the first Public Health Act passed in Britain?
(a) 1854 (b) 1870 (c) 1848 (d) 1880

What core WHO commitment is not currently a core public health function in the US and Australia?
(a) Protection of health and safety
(b) Competent healthcare practitioners
(c) Use of community partnerships (d) Comprehensive primary healthcare

The number of deaths each year of infants less than one year of age per 1000 live births in term
(a) Infant morbidity
(b) Infant mortality
(c) Maternal morbidity
(d) Maternal mortality

What is a major problem for organisations involve with planning global health strategies in areas of priority?
(a) The social health problem
(b) Health literacy o
(c) Unreliable data sets
(d) Computerisation

What type of health program concentrates on the treatment of a specific disease?
(a) Education program
(b) Vertical program
(c) Horizontal program
(d) Social health program

What are the main challenges and threats to health in the twenty-first century?
(a) Globalisation,global equalitylities and food security
(b) Globalisation,global in equality and the environment
(c) National debt serving and the environment
(d) Food, security and globalisation

The term morbidity is best defined as:
(a) Therateofincidenceofdeathinaspecifictimeperiod
(b) The rate of incidence or illness
(c) The number of deaths in a defined population
(d) The number of people with a specific illness in a given time

Why did it take until after 1895 for one of the major causes of death in Australia, tuberculosis, to become a proclaimed disease?
(a) The cause of tuberculosis had not been recognised as a bacteria until 1894
(b) There was lack of recognition that tuberculosis was contagious
(c) It took time for governments to develop the means to manage risks to public health
(d) Governments failed to recognise that tuberculosis was a major health risk

In the nineteenth century, rapid urbanisation occurred in Britain, Europe and Australia. This had which of the following effects?
(a) Poor sanitation provision
(b) Contaminated water supplies
(c) Overcrowding of housing
(d) All of the above

What factors led to the formation of the World Health Organisation?
(a) The psychological consequences of World War 1
(b) The influenza epidemic of 1918, 1919
(c) Cholera and typhoid epidemics in Asia
(d) The health and consequences of World War 11

Proclaiming an infectious disease in the late nineteenth century meant that:
(a) The federal quarantine service provided facilities for isolation of people with the disease
(b) Local government had to record the incidence of disease and provide resources to manage them
(c) Sanitation inspectors were provided with the power to quarantine people with an infectious
disease
(d) All of the above

What were the factors that led to the period 1950/1970 being a time when the focus was on curative, rather than a public, approach to health?
(a) Development of new drug treatment
(b) Reluctance to support a social model of health by the USA
(c) Development of biomedical technology
(d) All of the above

What date was set for the Millennium Development Goal targets to be met?
(a) 2020 (b) 2025 (c) 2010 (d) 2015

Which of the following best describes the nurture approach to social reform in Australia in the late nineteenth century
(a) Providesupportandeducationtohealthychildrenonly
(b) Offer incentives to poorer people to cease having children
(c) Offer incentives to the wealthier to have more children
(d) Provide support to mothers from lower socio-economic areas

What was the major cause of death in women in the late nineteenth century?
(a) Infectious disease
(b) Malnutrition
(c) Complications of childbirth
(d) Tuberculosis

The first Public Health Act in Australia was passed in:
(a) 1860 (b) 1848 (c) 1853 (d) 1854

Which of the following reforms best helped to prevent water-borne disease?
(a) Waste disposal, reporting mechanisms and quarantine
(b) Waterpollutioncontrols,andwasteandsewagedisposal
(c) Bacteriology, epidemiology and environmental controls
(d) The Factories Act, water pollution controls and bacteriology

The organisation you work for issues a policy about anti-discrimination in the workplace. Which of the following policy types is this policy?
(a) Advocacy
(b) Administrative (c) Public
(d) Redistributive

What policy improvements are thought to result from using a Health in All Policies approach to policy development?
(a) All policies for all tiers of government are developed by an overarching committee
(b) Each tier of government develops their policies separately
(c) Improved population health, equity and policy outcomes
(d) Improved population health y decreased equality

A committee meeting to discuss a policy currently being formulated is considering how best to address a health issue. During the meeting one committee member keeps bringing up the findings of a recent research study relevant to who should oversee the actioning of the policy. However, the majority of the committee feel differently about how the actions proposed in the policy should be managed. This is an example of a clash between:
(a) Political and technical rationalities
(b) Political and cultural rationalities (c) Technical and cultural rationalities (d) None of the above

Political and technical rationalities
What type do framework do Australians expect health policies to be based on?
(a) A market framework that includes public/private partnerships
(b) A social framework that supports those who have social inclusion
(c) A values framework that addresses inequity and provision of support
(d) An environmental framework that considers sustainability

Which of the following types of policy may be viewed by government with some wariness due to the political affiliations and values of the organization which produced it?
(a) Organizationalpolicy (b) Policyforadvocacy (c) Public policy
(d) Policyforchange

State and Territory Governments are responsible for:
(a) Fundingforimmunisation,maternalchildcareandhealthpromotion (b) Environmentalhealth,culturalandcommunitydevelopment
(c) Social well-being and the Pharmaceutical Benefit Scheme (d) Healthinsurance,agedcare,sanitationandwastedisposal

What should be done prior to the release of any policy into the public domain?
(a) Check that the proposal meets political objectives
(b) Apilotstudyoftheproposedactions
(c) Analyse the impact on all of the population
(d) Assess possible impact on vulnerable groups

Australia is classified as a:
(a) Liberalstate
(b) Socialdemocraticstate
(c) Neoliberal state
(d) ConservativeState

Which of the following is not a principle underpinning the HiAP approach to policy development?
(a) That health is impacted by a few factors that are evenly distributed in the community
(b) That the public should be consulted regularly and receive progress reports on impact of
policy
(c) There is the potential for partnerships between governments, academia and industry
(d) That sustainable mechanisms and integrated solutions are required

The Federal Government is responsible for:
(a) Community services for youth and social well-being
(b) Drugs,environmentalhealthandimmunisation
(c) Immunisation, school health and dental screening
(d) Healthinsurance,foodlabellingandagedcare

Which of the following are policies for advocacy?
(a) Positionstatements
(b) Protocols
(c) Practice guidelines
(d) Nationactionplans

Which of the following best defines a health policy?
(a) Actions developed by governments or public authorities to tackle a specific problem (b) Formal statement by the government that defines priorities and actions in response to health needs (c) Statements by public authorities about how to solve a problem
(d) Formal statement by a public authority to tackle a specific problem

What was the reason for a move to the welfare state after World War 2?
(a) To build a healthy population and lessen class conflict
(b) To rebuild the economy, national identity and meet social needs
(c) Because of a fear of communism and to build national identity
(d) To reward people for their endeavours during the war

High levels of state intervention, trade union membership, and spending on social security are characteristics of a:
(a) Neoliberalstate
(b) Conservativestate
(c) Liberal state
(d) Socialdemocraticstate

What is an example of external drivers that may cause a health issues to become a policy development issue?
(a) Issues seen as important by the ruling political party platform
(b) Mediareportingofahealthissuewithsupportingopinionpolls
(c) Change of ministers in the health portforlio
(d) Alloftheabove

A policy is a statement of:
(a) Actions to be taken to solve a specific problem or set of problems
(b) Procedures that end in definition, redefinition or change of an issue situation
(c) Intention including aims, goals, objective
(d) Alloftheabove

Which of the following do not fall under the responsibilities of Local Government?
(a) Sanitation,wastedisposalandenvironmentalhealth
(b) Healthinsurance,PoisonsAct,andnursinghomes
(c) Community services, social well-being and immunisation
(d) Noneoftheabove

A politician identified as a neoliberal would believe that:
(a) An individual is acted on by social influences
(b) The collective is more important than the individual
(c) What is good for the individual is good for society
(d) Peopleshouldbeprotectedfromeconomicrationalism

What philosophy underpins welfare policies?
(a) Economicrationalism
(b) Self-relianceandprivatepartnerships
(c) Equitable redistribution of income and wealth
(d) Inequality of access to income and resources

Public policies developed by the government of the day are guided by:
(a) Bipartisan values of the government and opposition
(b) The policies of all political parties
(c) The values of the political party in government
(d) The values of the population

People are more likely to adopt a new idea if it is uncomplicated and:
(a) Does not have an advantage over current practice
(b) Atrialofthenewideasisnotpossible
(c) Compatible with social norms and someone else is doing it
(d) They are going to be the first to try it in their group

When planning location and distribution of the marketing campaign locations the target audience frequents, available distribution channels are identified to:
(a) Estimate monetary profits from the campaign
(b) Definethecommunicationchannel
(c) Increase the campaigns access to the target audience
(d) Form partnerships with community organisations

A current campaign using television, film, print and electronic media emphasises the health benefits if people change their health behaviours. What type of strategy is the campaign using?
(a) Healtheducation
(b) Socialmarketing
(c) Advocacy programs
(d) Noneoftheabove

What are two of the competitive external factors that need to be considered in planning a social marketing campaign on alcohol?
(a) Feelinggoodandpleasure
(b) Socialacceptanceandcustom
(c) Desire and addiction
(d) Risktakingandfeelingpowerful

The theory underpinning social marketing campaigns is that if provided with information about the risks of behaving in certain ways and the benefits of alternative ways they will:
(a) Gainapositiveviewoftheriskybehaviour (b) Changebehaviouriftheirhealthisaffected (c) Adopt healthier behaviours
(d) Adoptaneutralperspectiveontheissue

When is a campaign that uses fear for a current threat likely to be successful in changing behaviours?
(a) Once the threat is well established and people can see if it has an effect
(b) Ifthemessageisdiscounted
(c) If the threat is well established and people think they are not at risk
(d) If people see the proposed behavioural change as useful and effective

Involvement of the community in planning social marketing campaigns has been reported to:
(a) Decrease the effectiveness of the campaign
(b) Make no difference to effectiveness of the campaign
(c) Increase the effectiveness of the campaign
(d) Decrease the ability to measure effectiveness

A marketing campaign for a specific type of alcohol is underway nationally. A social marketing campaign about the risks of alcohol is being developed. What is the difference between the two marketing campaigns?
(a) There is no difference as they are both selling a product
(b) Both types are offering a service to a client
(c) Marketing and social marketing both aim to provide social benefit
(d) Marketing is for commercial gain, social marketing for social benefit

Latrogenesis refers to:
(a) Desiredeffectsofusingafearappealapproachtohealtheducation
(b) Unintended adverse effects due to treatment or advice from a health care provider
(c) Intended effects of treatment or advice from a health care provider
(d) A top down approach to provision of advice by a health care provider

What is a particular challenge to the ability of social marketing in Australia to enable consumers to critically interpret mass media messages and make informed decisions?
(a) Thevastdistances
(b) Adultliteracylevels
(c) Lack of internet access
(d) Scare campaigns by opposition groups

Which of the following are cost benefits to include when planning a social marketing campaign for smoking cessation?
(a) Health costs to the individual over time if they change their behaviour
(b) Reduced costs to the health care system over time
(c) Less absences from work due to less smoking-related illness
(d) Alloftheabove

Victim blaming is an attitude that holds a person:
(a) Whollyorpartiallyresponsiblefortheirownhealthproblems
(b) To have no control over events that cause ill-health
(c) Responsible for their own and others health problems
(d) Contributes to social problems by their behaviours

The effect of scare or fear campaigns is to:
(a) Decreasepeoplesacceptanceofthemessage
(b) Increase peoples acceptance of the message (c) Increase peoples exposure to the message (d) Decrease peoples exposure to the message

What is the secret to communicating public health messages?
(a) Telling people what they need to know about a public issue
(b) Knowing what motivates and interests people enough for them to change
(c) Telling people what is best for them to do
(d) Telling people what is the right thing to do in their circumstances

Where within the health promotion framework is social marketing situated?
(a) Upstream
(b) Downstream (c) Midstream (d) Lowerstream

What are the potential effects of a fear campaign?
(a) Allofthefollowing
(b) Creationofstigma
(c) Message seen as irrelevant
(d) That is has the opposite effect

The best example of a comprehensive multifaceted public health program is the:
(a) Drinkdrivingcampaigns
(b) GrimReapercampaigns
(c) Responsible medication use campaign
(d) Healthyeatingcampaign

Social marketing is used in public health for:
(a) Sourcingfunding
(b) Publiceducationonsocialissues
(c) Increasing awareness of public health
(d) Changingdecision-makingbehaviours

An Australian survey of attitudes to road safety and factors contributing to road crashes found that:
(a) Males identified speed and drink driving as contributed factors more than females
(b) Females identified speed and drink driving as contributing factors more than males
(c) Males ages 15-24 years were less likely to identify drink driving as the main factor
(d) Females aged 15-24 years were less likely to identify speed as a factor

Exchange theory is best exemplified in a social marketing campaign that promotes the:
(a) Effects on the health care system
(b) Long-term effects of the behaviour on the family
(c) Negative effects of a behaviour on health
(d) Positive effects to health if an old behaviour is stopped

Some communities will be without the knowledge and skills to set goals, prioritise issues and forward plan. Using community development the health practitioner:
(a) Develops a plan with other experts that the community can adopt
(b) Helps the community to remain at the point they are
(c) Uses their expertise to make decisions and plan for the community
(d) Workswiththecommunityatthepointtheyareatandsupportstheirdecisions

Why are middle-class health practitioner programs less likely to achieve their goal?
(a) They fail to use processes that truly engage the community
(b) Theymainlyworkonindividualhealthprograms
(c) They are too confident in their skills
(d) They prefer to use a bottom-up approach

What principles underpin community participation where any member of the community may have input into the process?
(a) Humanrights (b) Democracy
(c) Citizenship
(d) Alloftheabove

Which of the following abilities are attributes that workers for community development in health require?
(a) Understanding of local, prioritised determinants of health
(b) The ability to see each action required for creating healthy communities in detail
(c) The ability to work independently
(d) The ability to use their professional power

Community engagement refers to a strategy that involves all of the following except:
(a) Working with diverse groups and communities
(b) Working with disadvantages or vulnerable groups and communities
(c) Working to decrease social inclusion
(d) Working to increase access to health services

Which of the following are not community/ political outcomes of an empowerment program?
(a) Increasedaccountabilityandmaterialassets
(b) Decreasedcorruptionandtransparency
(c) Increased social capital
(d) Decreases civil liberties and participation

Partnerships, organisational and workforce development, resource allocation and leadership are all required for:
(a) Individualdevelopment
(b) Healthpromotion
(c) Health education
(d) Capacitybuilding

A group in a village that only has a poor water resource from a polluted river 3 kilometres away, meet and formulate a plan to get clean water source in the community. The villagers then become involved and ultimately they are successful in getting a new well in the village. They also develop strategies to ensure that the new water source is uncontaminated, equally shared and kept functioning. This process is an example of:
(a) Communitystrengthening
(b) Communityaction
(c) Community engagement
(d) Communityhealth

Partnerships between organisations and community groups are used to:
(a) Improvehealthoutcomes
(b) Buildcapacity
(c) Build communities
(d) Alloftheabove

According to Raeburn and Corbett (2003), which of the following practices is not characteristic of community-controlled community development?
(a) Health professionals work as co-facilitators to empower and build capacity in the community
(b) Consultation, discussion and needs assessment involving staff from local organisations
(c) Health professionals consult, discuss and carry out needs assessment involving community
representatives
(d) Partnershipwithsharedbalanceofpoweranddecisionmaking

A partnership has been formed between a number of people representing different health and other disciplines with specific knowledge to work together on a program, to develop strategies and actions for a problem that a community group has identified.

This partnership is:
(a) Project-oriented (b) Problem-oriented (c) Ethical
(d) Ideological

Community development is a process based on:
(a) Having the health professionals direct the community towards the desired social change
(b) Providing programs to the community to drive the social change
(c) Using social marketing directed at bringing about change in the community
(d) Having the people draw on resources and actively drive the social change

Sharing information for mutual benefit is common to all types of partnerships, but which type of partnership includes altering activities and sharing resources for mutual benefit and common purpose?
(a) Collaborativepartnership
(b) Coordinationpartnership
(c) Cooperating partnership
(d) Networkingpartnership

Which of the following is an organisational outcome of an empowerment program?
(a) Motivation to act
(b) Interestinsocialcapital
(c) Sustainability
(d) Increasedtransparency

Freires (1970) adult literacy method was based on a:
(a) Top-down linear process of education
(b) Bottom-up linear process of education
(c) Dynamic cyclic process involving critical reflection
(d) Staticcyclicprocessinvolvingdescription

Community development requires the health professional to do all of the following except:
(a) Empower the people or community to make change
(b) Recognise and use their own power to drive change
(c) Support the people or community to make change
(d) Incorporate the opinions of the people or community into decision making

Community engagement is a process where health workers engage with communities:
(a) On health or social issues affecting them and the processes that will tackle the issues
(b) In making decisions related to health policy and planning for the community
(c) Who are making decisions related to well-being of themselves and the community
(d) Making meaningful decisions related to care and treatment of themselves and the
community

Benefits that accrue from working in partnership include:
(a) Communityexclusiveness
(b) Sharedresources,knowledgeandskills
(c) Form relationships for the short-term
(d) Decreasedefficiency

A health promotion activity on bullying in the workplace is planned and carried out in a workplace. Which characteristic of practices that involve the community is this an example of?
(a) Communityparticipation
(b) Useofasettingapproach
(c) Consultation and discussion
(d) Partnership

Barriers to community development in health include:
(a) Activeparticipatorymechanisms
(b) Supportfromgroupswithhealthyinvestments
(c) Long-term funding of the program
(d) Community expectations of service deliverers

What percentage of years of life lost in low income countries are due to communicable disease?
(a) 68% (b) 33% (c) 51% (d) 8%
The effects of environmental risk, and social economic activity have given rise to environmental health problems that are:
(a) Clearcause-effectproblems
(b) Shortterm,complex,cumulativeproblems
(c) Long term, cause-effect problems
(d) Longterm,complex,cumulativeproblems
A re-emergence of communicable disease in Australia is predicted for the future, related to a warmer climate causing:
(a) Expansionofvector-bornedisease
(b) Increasingbacterialmultiplication
(c) Spore maturation
(d) Alloftheabove

The projected health impact of climatic change for people living in Australia includes an increase in food, water and insect vector-borne disease due to more frequent:
(a) Highsealevels
(b) Heatwaves
(c) Tropical cyclones
(d) Droughts

Which countries are most at risk from a combination of traditional and modern environmental health threats?
(a) Low income countries with poor infrastructure
(b) Developingcountriesundergoingrapidindustrialisation
(c) Developed countries with middle and high incomes
(d) Developingcountrieswithlowinfrastructure

What is the estimated difference in life expectancy between Indigenous Australians and non- Indigenous Australians?
(a) 17 years less for Indigenous Australians
(b) 10 years less for Indigenous Australians
(c) 10 years more for non-Indigenous Australians
(d) 12 years more for non-Indigenous Australians

Which of the following is the best example of an area where tension exists between health needs and environmental needs?
(a) Foodproductionanduseofpesticides (b) Pollutionandpetrol-driventransport (c) Management of toxic waste and the environment (d) Infectious disease and food-borne disease

What is the main reason it is difficult for low lying countries, such as those in the Pacific, to institute global action for the activities that are causing climatic change?
(a) Lackofrelevantdiplomaticties
(b) Poornegotiationskills
(c) Lack of economic power
(d) Unrepresentedatforums

What health impact can the run-off from fertilised land have on young babies in developing countries?
(a) Peripheralneuropathy
(b) Reducedoxygencarryingcapacityofblood
(c) Diarrhoeal disease
(d) Chronicrespiratorydisease

While developing nations continue to face increasing environmental threats to health such as poor water quality and sanitation, industrial nations face modern threats such as pollution due to:
(a) Changes in ocean temperature
(b) ReductionIconsumptionofnaturalresources
(c) Unsustainable over-development
(d) Naturaldisasters

WHO have estimated the percentage of the population in industrialised countries who are affected by gastroenteritis each year as?
(a) 40% of the population
(b) 30%ofthepopulation
(c) 25% of the population
(d) 10%ofthepopulation

An important major projected health impact of climatic change related to the effects of drought is:
(a) Reducedcold-relatedmortality
(b) Increasedinlandmigration
(c) Malnutrition and water shortages
(d) Fires and reduced biodiversity

How many children from developing countries did the World Health Organisation estimate in 2007 to have died from preventable environmental causes?
(a) 8million
(b) 5million
(c) 4 million
(d) 1.7million

The World Health Organisation has estimated that unsafe water supplies and poor sanitation result in:
(a) 1.8 million deaths from diarrhoea per year
(b) 4 million deaths from diarrhoea per year
(c) 6 million deaths from diarrhoea per year
(d) 4 billion deaths from diarrhoea per year

What threat do depleted stratospheric ozone layer and increased atmospheric temperatures present to people?
(a) Decreasedincidenceofcataracts
(b) Increasedimmunesystemfunction
(c) Increased incidence of skin cancer
(d) Alloftheabove

Health services themselves impact on the environment through:
(a) Wastemanagementpractices
(b) Substantialuseofnaturalresources
(c) Power usage
(d) Alloftheabove

Environmental health justice is described as the right to:
(a) Goodenvironmentallaws
(b) Asafe,healthy,productiveandsustainableenvironment
(c) Receive appropriate compensation for environmental disease
(d) Aproductive,expanding,industrialenvironment

How many preventable deaths due to lack of access to treated water have been estimated?
(a) 2billion
(b) 1.7million
(c) 3 million
(d) 1billion

Factors such as overcrowding, poor housing and infrastructure in Indigenous communities contribute to a hospital admission rate for respiratory disease that is:
(a) Twice that of non-Indigenous Australians
(b) One and a half times that of non-Indigenous Australians
(c) Three times that of non-Indigenous Australians
(d) Four times that of non-Indigenous Australians

Which of the following contribute to disturbance in the balance of the microbial world?
(a) Reductionofurbanisationandintensivefarming
(b) Populationgrowthandenvironmentaldegradation
(c) Local marketing and air travel
(d) Urbanisationandenvironmentalcontrols


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Diagnosis Of Pregnancy; Presumptive, Probable, And Positive Signs.

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Diagnosis Of Pregnancy; Presumptive, Probable, And Positive Signs.

CHILD BEARING CIRCLE

This is a period from a time of puberty begining of menstrual circle from the time of menopause which marks the end of menstrual flow.

DIAGNOSIS OF PREGNANCY

The diagnosis of pregnancy requires a multifaceted approach using three main diagnostic tools. These are history and physical examination, laboratory evaluation, and ultrasonography.

The diagnosis of pregnancy has taken on greater importance in recent years as advanced reproductive technologies have become more commonplace and the ability to medically treat early extrauterine pregnancies has become a safe reality. Sensitive biochemical assays and high-resolution ultrasonography now make the diagnosis of pregnancy highly sensitive and specific.

Early signs/symptoms of pregnancy which occurs as menses case and return some weeks or months after delivery.

The diagnosis are depth or group into 3.

These are:

  1. Presumptive signs
  2. Probable signs
  3. Positive signs

1. PRESUMPTIVE SIGNS:

The first presumptive sign is

A. AMENORRHEA: During the reproductive period of a healthy individual she is bound to have menstrual flow, therefore the presence of amenorrhea is likely to be a sign of early pregnancy unless approved otherwise.
B. MORNING SICKNESS: It is inconsistently present in about 50% of cases. The sign is most often seen in the first pregnancies than subsequent ones.

  • It occurs soon following the mixed period (amenorrhea) and rarely last beyond the 3rd month..
  • It varies from the sign of nausea that occur from rising up from bed to loss of appetite or even vomiting..
  • But it it does not affect the health of the woman.
    C. BREAST DISCOMFORT: This comes in the form of feeling of fullness and pricking sensations.. this is evidence of notice as early as 6-8 weeks of gestation
  • Nipple and the areolar becomes pigmented in dark women
  • Montgomery’s tubercles are predominant and present of thick yellowish colostrum can be expressed as early from 12 weeks of gestation.
    D. FATIGUE: It is very common early signs of pregnancy.

ALTERED SIGNS UNDER PRESUMPTIVE SIGNS

  • SKIN CHANGES
  • QUICKENING

2. PROBABLE SIGNS

Probable signs of pregnancy are considered to be signs that the examiner can observe.

THIS SIGNS INCLUDE:

A. ABDOMINAL ENLARGEMENT

  • The uterus remain a pelvic organ until the 12 weeks of gestation.
  • It may be first seen as a supra pubic bulge.
  • Pelvic changes is diverse and appear at different period
  • The size, shape and consistency appears different period..
  • At 6 weeks it enlarge to a size of Hen egg
  • At 8 weeks size of a cricket ball
  • At 12 weeks size of a fetal head and becomes globular and the uterus become active activated and is most common from 6-8 weeks of pregnancy.

B. BRATON HICK’S CONTRACTIONS

  • Contractions are evident quickening (feeling of life) which denotes the perception of active fetal movement but the woman at 18 weeks.
  • Mostly in primigravida and 2 weeks early in multiparous women.

C. PALPATION OF FETAL HEART (PART)

  • This can be distantly seen and felt at 20wks.
  • This helps not only to diagnosed pregnancy but also identify the presentation and position of the foetus in later weeks.

D. EXTERNAL BALLOTMENT:

  • This sign is seen early at 20 wks
  • also the fetus is relatively smaller than the volume of amniotic fluid.

E. INTERNAL BALLOTMENT

  • This can be detected between 16-28 weeks of gestation because it is too small to detect before 16 weeks and too large to dictate after 28 weeks.

F. JACK QUEMIERS OR CHADWICK’S

  • This is discolouration of the vestibule and the anterior vaginal wall commonly seen at 8weeks. This occurs as a result of congestion.

G. CERVICAL SIGN

  • This is usually softening of the cervix as early as 6 weeks of gestation. It can also be called Goodwill sign.
  • It is a little earlier in multiparous women than the nulliparous.
  • It is as a result of vascularity.

H. PALMER’S SIGN

  • This regular and rhythmic uterine contractions as early as 4-8wks.
  • It is one of the visible signs which can be seen

I. IMMUNOLOGICAL TEST

  • This are positive test of pregnancy..
  • It’s shown by the presence of uric acid in ASSAY with the use of radio isotopes and the used splogtsphu test
  • This can detect fetal pole as early as 6 weeks.

3. POSITIVE OR ABSOLUTE SIGNS OF PREGNANCY

This are confirmatory signs which help to dictate pregnancy.

This signs include:

A. Manual application of fetal part and perception of active fetal movement by the examination at about 20wks of gestation.

B. Hearing of the fetal heart sound- this is the most conclusive clinical signs of pregnancy with an ordinary stethoscope

C. Ultra sonic evidence of the embro- as early as 6 weeks and later on as the fetus grows.

D. Radiological demonstration of the fetal skeleton. This is at 16 weeks onwards.

Nursing Council Exam Preparatory On Primary Health Care — Questions And Answers (Part1)

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Nursing Council Exam Preparatory On Primary Health Care — Questions And Answers (Part1)


Health is best described as a resource that allows a person to have:
(a) A social and spiritual life
(b) A productive social and economic life
(c) Economic well-being
(d) Physical capacity

What distinguishes primary health care from primary care?
(a) A focus on primary, secondary and tertiary intervention
(b) Provision of interventions specific to the health need
(c) Works within a multidisciplinary framework
(d) Planning and operation of services is centralised

The main aim of public health is to improve health by:
(a) Providingmedicalinterventionappropriatefortheindividual
(b) Performing research to compare the effectiveness of treatments
(c) Promoting health and preventing disease in populations
(d) Providing advice on risk markers and genetics to families

Comprehensive primary health care is characterised by activities that work to change:
(a) Social and political determinants of illness
(b) Economic and educational well-being
(c) Health status in communities, regions or cities
(d) All of the above

Health care is predominantly:
(a) The providence of the diagnostician
(b) Community focused
(c) Political in nature
(d) Independentinnature

A determinant that is clearly related to a change in health status is defined as a:
(a) Distal determinant
(b) Social determinant
(c) Proximal determinant
(d) Ecological determinant

Primary prevention is concerned with:
(a) Preventing disease or illness occurring
(b) Delaying the progress of an existing disease or illness
(c) Maintaining current health status
(d) Treatment of existing disease or illness

Predictors of future population health includes factors such as:
(a) Peoples circumstances (b) Childhood lifestyle factors
c) Geographic location of people (d) All of the above

Primary health care focuses on:
(a) Providing early diagnosis and treatment
(b) Performing health surveillance measure
(c) Exploring the relationship between determinants of health
(d) Reducing inequality and effects of disadvantages

An example of primary health care is an:
(a) Nurse practitioner clinic
(b) Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Organization
(c) Outpatient clinic for a specific disease process
(d) Aged Care Services Organisation

Social determinants of health:
(a) are constant between similar population
(b) Refer specifically to the characteristics of health
(c) May vary between similar populations
(d) Refer specifically to methods that can be used to measure health

Which approach to health is the most concerned with the social causes of disease, injustice and inequity?
(a) Biomedical
(b) Behavioural
(c) Ecological
(d) New public health

Which of the following models of health is the primary health care approach based on?
(a) Behavioural (b) Economic (c) Social
(d) Education

Sustainability refers to the ability of a program to:
(a) Be uncompromising when disturbances occur in social and environmental systems
(b) Identify and reduce risk factors and lifestyle behaviours affecting health
(c) Meet current needs without affecting the ability of people in the future to meet their needs
(d) Focus on the social, political, economic and ecological dimensions of health

A person working as a health educator uses an approach that views health as related to:
(a) Pathological process
(b) Behavioural change
(c) Health screening
(d) Minimising complications

Primary health care is usually practiced in:
(a) Community health services and NGOs
(b) Community and acute care clinic
(c) Aboriginal health services and NGOs
(d) Health education units

Social Justice refers to:
(a) Ensuring the punishment fits the crime
(b) An ethical concept based on human rights and fairness
(c) Social inclusion
(d) An ethical concept based on autonomy

The Ottawa Charter described health in terms of:
(a) The presence of disease
(b) The presence of health
(c) The object for living
(d) Physical capabilities

Health literacy is best defined as the capacity of a person to:
(a) Readhealth-related literature
(b) Follow medical instructions for specific health problems
(c) Recognise and know how to find information about a health problem
(d) Access the internet

Most people view health based on their:
(a) Personalknowledgeandexperience
(b) Life situation
(c) Cultural background
(d) All of the above

Health equity refers to the:
(a) Right to fair distribution of health services
(b) Disparities in health status among individuals
(c) Discrimination inherent in health care
(d) Statistical difference in health between groups

Which of the following best describes the principles that underlie the social health model?
(a) Individualised technologies and responsibilities
(b) Separation of health from the environment and spiritual belief
(c) Reduction of individual risk factors and individual or community-based education
(d) Reductionofinequityandempowermentwithindividualsandcommunities

Which of the following is the best description of life expectancy?
(a) The number of years people in a specific group or population can expect to live
(b) The number of years all people in all populations expect to live
(c) The minimum number of years people in a specific group expect to live
(d) The maximum number of years people in a specific group of population expect to live

Legislation enacted by the Federal Government with the aim of reducing health-related risk factors, such as increasing taxation on harmful products, has been due to:
(a) Public Health Advocacy
(b) Primarycare
(c) Health education
(d) Product manufacture

What does the term selective primary health care mean?
(a) Care focused on individual technology than equality
(b) An emphasis on promoting equity and justice
(c) A plan to confront determinants of illness
(d) Care focused on identifying causes of disease

For primary health care to improve health, people must first have:
(a) Access to medical services
(b) Their basic needs met
(c) A health promotion program
(d) Electronic medical records

The key elements the World Health Organization sees as necessary to achieve better health for all include:
(a) Decreasinginclusioninhealthcarecoverage
(b) Increasingstakeholderparticipation
(c) Centralising and standardizing health service delivery
(d) Reducinguseofcollaborativemodels

The term used to describe measurable differences in attaining health is:
(a) Healthequity
(b) Healthinequity
(c) Health gradient
(d) Health inequality

Allocation of health resources to one geographic area or group is an example of:
(a) Health inequality
(b) Health equality
(c) Health inequality
(d) Healthjustice

Understanding of health determinants is essential for:
(a) Primary health care interventions and assessment
(b) Effective programs to enable people to maintain good health
(c) Organisation of health services in regions or cities
(d) Acute care service provision

Health promotion advocates did NOT view health as:
(a) Are a source of life
(b) The reason for living
(c) A positive concept
(d) Including personal resources

Collective efforts by a group to increase their control over health determinants is known as
(a) Community control
(b) Community action
(c) Health activism
(d) Public policy

What role were health professionals seen as fulfilling in health promotion?
(a) Enabling and nurturing health promotion
(b) Controlling the health promotion agenda
(c) Monitoring the health care team
(d) Working with teachers

What factors besides lan degradation affect the ability to create supportive environments?
(a) Rapidpopulationgrowthandclimateevents
(b) Productive food harvest
(c) Political and social accord
(d) Economic stability

At the Fourth International Health Promotion Conference, which of the following strategies was designed to achieve the priority of social responsibility for health?
(a) Investment in housing development
(b) Furtherdeveloppartnershipsforsocialdevelopment
(c) Develop intersectional infrastructure for health promotion
(d) Restrictproductionandtradeofharmfulsubstances

What effect does the concentration of power and resources in a minority of the population generally have on the health of county as a whole?
(a) Improves development of health intervention
(b) Provides improved health to the population
(c) Increases inequity in health in the country
(d) Provides access to biomedical technology

What health term is used to refer to the physical and social features of the settings people live and work in and their access to resources for living?
(a) Health environment
(b) Supportive environment
(c) Community
(d) Social and community network

What were the three ways to nurture health proposed in the Ottawa Charter?
(a) Control,empowermentandfunding
(b) Control,arbitrationandenabling
(c) Advocacy, funding and policy
(d) Advocacy,mediationandenabling

What is the health public policy?
(a) A program to increase political investment in health
(b) A financial incentive program to encourage health seeking behaviours
(c) Creation of a supportive environment to enable people to lead healthy lives
(d) Creationofincreasedinvestmentinhealthbytheprivatesector

In which city in a developing country was the First International Conference on Health Promotion held?
(a) Bangkok,Thailand
(b) Mexico City, Mexico
(c) Nairobi, Kenya
(d) Jakarta,Indonesia

Which WHO meeting left to the shift in the power form health care providers to health care consumers and communities?
(a) HealthforAllbytheYear2000
(b) AlmaAta
(c) First International Health Promotion Conference
(d) AustralianBetterHealthCommission

What did the Fourth International Health Promotion Conference decide needed to be done about the effects of health promotion policy and practice?
(a) Dissemination of evidence of the effects on health and health equity
(b) Collectionandreviewoftheevidenceoftheeffectofhealthpromotion
(c) Provide infrastructure to collect evidence on the outcome of health promotion
(d) Alloftheabove

What event potentially constitutes the largest public health challenge in the twenty-first century?
(a) Increase in conflict and refugees
(b) Climatechangehealthimpacts
(c) Global travel and epidemics
(d) Increase in lifestyle disease
What precipitated the need for the Nairobi Call for Action?
(a) Reduction in Global Conflict
(b) Decreased need to manage communicable disease
(c) Narrowing of gender equity issues
(d) Widening inequities in health, in and between countries

What environmental aspects need to be addressed in strategies for health promotion? (a)Maximisationofdevelopmentofthebuiltenvironment
(b)Maximisationoftheuseofnaturalresourcesindevelopment
(c) Maintenance and protection of built and natural environments
(d)Develophealthpolicyseparatefromenvironmentalconcerns

The Ottawa Charter stated that the development of personal skills was a process: (a) That was lifelong to prepare the individual for life stages and to make choices to enhance their health
(b) That commenced with an illness encounter and assisted the individual to cope
(c) Dependent upon public health care education programs
(d) Provided by for groups who were open to equity and inequality

What aspects of health had changed by the latter part of the twentieth century?
(a) Emphasis on medical interventions for health
(b) Increaseinnon-communicabledisease
(c) Rod of the individual in health care
(d) All of the above

What method provided wider inclusion of participants in the Seventh International Conference on Health Promotion in Nairobi?
(a) Singleparticipatoryapproach
(b) Virtualparticipation
(c) Workshop location
(d) Conference documents

What action did the Bangkok conference on health promotion see as providing protection from harm and equal opportunity for health and well-being for all?
(a) Investmentinsustainableresources
(b) Advocacyforhumanrights
(c) Regulation and legislation
(d) Buildingcapacityforpolicydevelopment

How does health promotion affect general policy formulation?
(a) Policymakersoutsidehealthwillbedirectedbyhealthdepartments
(b) Health policy makers need to ensure that they have considered all possible policy areas
(c) All policy makers need to consider how they can contribute to health promotion
(d) Policies need to be legislated so everyone will follow them

How did the output in the Nairobi Call for Action differ from the statements of precious conferences on health promotion?
(a) Recommendedempowermentofindividuals
(b) Recommended development of individuals skills
(c) Provision of working documents for the attendees
(d) Provision of evidence-based strategies and actions

Who did the Fourth International Conference of Health Promotion actively involve for the first time, in setting the priorities for promotion health in the twenty-first century?

(a) Non-governmentalorganisations
(b) Charitablefoundations
(c) The private sector
(d) Universities

In which groups had health promotion been most successful?
(a) Lower socio-economic groups in developing counties
(b) Privilegedpeopleindevelopedcounties
(c) Indigenous populations in developed countries
(d) Middlesocio-economicgroupsindevelopingcountries

Health promotion has evolved over the last four decades from initial concerns about disease prevention. What is the primary focus for health promotion in the twenty-first century?
(a) Newtechnology
(b) Developingpublichealth
(c) Social determinants
(d) Risk management

Which of the following forces have the potential to hinder achieving th foals for health?
(a) International marketing strategies
(b) The Internet/electronic communication
(c) Movement across national and international boundaries
(d) All of the above

Public health improvement in the early nineteenth century occurred due to:
(a) Government initiated structure
(b) Public Health Services
(c) Individuals taking action
(d) Non-governmental organizations

What did the Ottawa Charter do for health promotion?
(a) Identified conditions required for disease and illness
(b) Strengthened the role of biomedical professionals in health promotion
(c) Developed the strategies to be used by health promotors
(d) Identified key concepts, actions and strategies od health promotion

At the Third International Conference on Health Promotion, which specific group did the action strategy for strengthening advocacy target?
(a) Thepoor
(b) Non-governmentorganisations (c) Women
(d) Privatesectoragencies

What did the Sixth Global Conference on Health Promotion in Bangkok identify, other than community and skills, that was needed to improve health?
(a) Building alliances between the public and private sectors (b) Reducingcapacityforhealthliteracy
(c) Making policy to meet the specific need of the time (d) All of the above

Protection of the environment and sustainable use of resources was to help foster:
(a) Social responsibility for health
(b) Trade surpluses to fund health care
(c) Reduced effects of climate change
(d) Infrastructureforhealthprom

What was the initial level that wages for Indigenous workers were set by the Queensland government?
(a) Fifty percent less than non-Indigenous workers
(b) Twenty-five percent less than non-Indigenous workers
(c) Twelve point five percent of non-Indigenous workers
(d) Forty percent less than non-Indigenous workers

How did the Aboriginal people of Australia view land at the time of first settlement?
(a) As a capital resource
(b) As something they were part of
(c) As something to overcome
(d) As an asset for farming

The Northern Territory Emergency Response intervention was stated to be initiated as a response to what problems in Aboriginal communities
(a) Poor financial management
(b) Increased chronic health
(c) Child sexual abuse
(d) Lackofnativetitle

The Indigenous perspective of land meant that they saw themselves as:

(a) Having obligations to others in their clan
(b) Having a spiritual connection to the land
(c) Being custodians of the land
(d) All of the above

What effect on Indigenous children did separation from their families have?
(a) Disruption to kinship patterns
(b) Lossofculturalidentity
(c) Enforced dependency
(d) All of the above

What was the reason behind the proposal in 1874 that the Coranderrk Aboriginal Station be abandoned?
(a) The poor land practices of the inhabitants
(b) The unhealthy surroundings by the river
(c) The value of the land where it was situated
(d) Lackofenterprisebytheinhabitants

The second part of the 1967 referendum was passed with a 90.77 percent Yes vote. The first question asked Australian voters to agree that the Constitution be amended to include Indigenous Australians in the population count. What did the second question ask?
(a) If Indigenous Australians should be recognised as original inhabitants in to the Australian Constitution
(b) If the United Nations Declaration of Human Rights should be written into the Australian Constitution
(c) If they should be sequestered from those the federal government had power to make laws for
(d) If they should be included in those people the federal government had power to make laws for

What was the Aboriginal population of the Port Phillip colony estimated to be by 1850
(a) Less than 2000
(b) Less than 3000
(c) Between 10005000
(d) Between60007000

The effects of loss of self-esteem due to historical, intergenerational, and welfare dependency are mirrored in the following rates:
(a) Suicide in Indigenous men between 35-34 years
(b) Suicide in Indigenous women between 25-34 years
(c) A median gross weekly income of 64% of that of non-Indigenous adults
(d) Reduced labour force participation rated for the Indigenous population

What proportion of Indigenous families are estimated to have been affected by the removal of children into state control across Australia?
(a) 1in4families
(b) 1in3families
(c) 2 in 4 families
(d) 2in3families

What does the term collective trauma describe?
(a) Psychologicaltraumaintheremovedchildren
(b) Alackofexperienceofchildhoodbytheremovedchildren
(c) Lack of role models for parenting for the removed children
(d) Psychological trauma within the Indigenous community

What percentage of the prisoner population did the Indigenous prisoners account for?
(a) 28% (b) 30% (c) 26% (d)22%

Whose authority removed Indigenous children for their families in Victoria in the late 1800s? (a) TheGeneralInspectoroftheBoardforProtectionofAborigines
(b) The Governor of Victoria
(c) The Victorian Child Welfare Agency (d) TheInspectorGeneralofHealthforVictoria

The major reason for the impoverishment of the Australian Indigenous population by mid-1800 was:
(a) Loss of access to traditional land
(b) Introduced disease
(c) European foodstuffs
(d) Lack of employment

Removal of Indigenous children from their families, segregation of Indigenous families onto settlements and missions, and the policies of assimilation were based on the principles of:
(a) SocialDarwinism
(b) Geneticdependency
(c) Matthew effect
(d) Predestination

What was the estimated original Aboriginal population of the Port Phillip colony?
(a) 4000 (b) 10,000 (c) 12,000 (d) 600

Aboriginal people use a holistic approach to health as opposed to a:
(a) Progressivehealthmodel
(b) Mandalahealthmodel
(c) Linear health model
(d) Globalhealthmodel

What two myths continue to affect the future of Australian Indigenous health?
(a) Terra Nullis and Mabo Decision
(b) Terra Nullis and the White Australia Policy
(c) The White Australia Policy and the 1967 referendum
(d) The1967referendumandTerraNullis

The burden of illness and disease within the Indigenous Australian community is estimated as
(a) Twice that of non-Indigenous Australians
(b) Half that of non-Indigenous Australians
(c) 23 times that of non-Indigenous Australians
(d) 34 times that of non-Indigenous Australians

As reported by the CSDH, the most important determinant of health, life expectancy and productivity is the:
(a) Material situations people attain
(b) Psychosocial aspects of behaviour
(c) Social conditions of people from birth onwards
(d) Social conditions of people in adulthood

What type of determinant is the lack of public transport to reach school or work?
(a) Proximal
(b) Distal
(c) Transitional (d) Intermediate

What percentage of economic activity did Kickbusch estimate the mainstream health sector contributed in South Australia?
(a) 1012% (b) 1013% (c) 510% (d) 518%

According to Robertson and Minkler, what role do non-government organisations play in their relationship with individuals and economic of political factors relation to health?
(a) Conduitsfordelivery (b) Structuralsponsors (c) Mediators (d) Antagonists

Which of the following are described as distal determinants of health?
(a) Lifestyle behaviors and poor health care access (b) Inadequate nutrition and housing (c) Anti-discrimination laws and taxation (d) Public provision of health services

From the evidence, which two determinants of health are being shown to be the most important in relation to health?
(a) Social support and physical environment
(b) Social and economic status
(c) Education and employment
(d) Genetic endowment and coping skills

The goal of the Commission on Social Determinants of Health was to influence change in health policy by
(a)Producing a definite list of health determinants
(b) Empowering the role of non-government organizations
(c) Collecting and synthesizing scientific evidence
d) Providing Financial support through the World Bank

Click here to read the Part 2

Kwara State College Of Nursing Sciences, Ilorin Begins Sales Of 2024/2025 Admission Forms

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Kwara State College Of Nursing Sciences, Ilorin Begins Sales Of 2024/2025 Admission Forms

ADMISSION! ADMISSION!! ADMISSION!!!

Application for admission into ND/HND Nursing Programme for 2024/2025 Academic Session.

This is to inform the General Public that Kwara State College of Nursing Sciences, Oke-Ode Application Form for 2024/2025 Academic Session is on SALES. The applicants are expected to visit portal.kwconoo.edu.ng to see the instructions and steps on how to obtain the form.

  1. Candidate must scored 180 and above in JAMB.
  2. Candidate must visit JAMB office or JAMB approved CBT Center for change of institution to College of Nursing Sciences Oke-Ode.
  3. Candidate must have at least five (5) O’ Level Credits to including English Language, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology at not more than 2-sittings in WAEC, NECO or NABTEB
  4. Combination of WAEC&WAEC. WAEC&NECO or NECO&NECO are accepted, NABTEB must be one sitting.

ELIGIBILITY

  1. Candidate must have at least five (5) O’ Level Credits to including English Language, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology at not more than 2-sittings in WAEC, NECO or NABTEB
  2. Combination of WAEC&WAEC. WAEC&NECO or NECO&NECO are accepted, NABTEB must be one sitting.

NOTIFICATION

Entrance Examination is CBT (Computer Base Test)

Date of Entrance of Examination is 24th September, 2024

Venue: CBT CENTRE KWARA STATE COLLEGE OF NURSING & SCIENCES, OKE-ODE.

Time: 8.00am

Admission Requirements

Candidates must have the following:

  • Minimum of 5 credits in WAEC/GCE O’level/ NECO not more than two (2) sittings. NABTEB is only one (1) sitting.
  • JAMB Score of 180 and above
  • Change of Institution on JAMB Portal at any JAMB Approved Registration Center into Kwara State College of Nursing Sciences, Ilorin.
  • Original Jamb Result Slip
  • Passport

Purchase Of Form

Form can be obtained from the college portal Nationwide (myportal.collegeofnursingmidwiferyilorin.edu.ng)

NOTE: Ensure your collection and registration is legit.

Contact the Registrar at 07080709560, or the Director of Nursing at 08064432292

MATERNAL CHILD HEALTH
FETAL SKULL FOR NURSING EXAM PREPARATORY

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MATERNAL CHILD HEALTH <br>FETAL SKULL FOR NURSING EXAM PREPARATORY

DIVISION OF FETAL SKULL

  • The fetal head is egg shaped
  • The fetal skull is divided into;
  1. Vault: This is the large dome-shaped part of the skull that covers the brain.
  2. Base: It’s composed of united bones which protect the medulla.
  3. Face: It is composed of 14 small bones which are united.

What is Vault

https://www.open.edu/openlearncreate/mod/oucontent/view.php?
  • Frontal bones: They have frontal protuberance and 2 in number
  • Parietal bones: Lie on either side of the
  • The occiput: It is at the back of the skull. It has a protrusion called occipital protuberance or eminence.
  • On the sides, there are 2 Temporal bones.

What is Suture

Sutures are the cranial joints formed where two bones meet.

  • Coronal suture separates the parietal bone and frontal bones.
  • Frontal suture separates the two frontal bones. 
  • Sagittal suture separates the two parietal bones
  • Lambdoidal suture separates the occipital bone and the parietal bones.
  • Temporal suture separates the parietal bones from temporal bones.

FONTANELLES

  • Fontanelles are formed when two or more sutures meet.
  • There are two main fontanelles
  • Posterior fontanelle: This is formed by the junction of the parietal and lambdoidal suture. It is triangular in shape. It closes after six weeks of birth of the baby. It is also called LAMBDA ,OCCIPITAL FONTANELLE. It is usually less than 1cm in diameter.
  • Anterior fontanelle: This is formed by the junction of coronal and sagittal.
https://www.open.edu/openlearncreate/mod/oucontent/view.php?

Face Of Fetal Skull

https://www.open.edu/openlearncreate/mod/oucontent/view.php?

It is composed of 14 bones:

  • INFERIOR NASAL COCHA 2
  • BONES VOMER 1
  • LACRIMAL BONE 2
  • ZYGOMATIC BONES 2
  • PALATINE BONE 2
  • MANDIBLE 1
  • MAXILLA 2
  • NASAL BONES 2

The Base Of The Fetal Skull

It’s composed of three (3) bones:

  • Ethmoid Bone
  • Sphenoid Bone
  • Temporal Bone
https://www.open.edu/openlearncreate/mod/oucontent/view.php?

Importance Of Fetal Skull To The Midwifery

  1. It contains the delicate brain and about 95% of babies present by head
  2. Sound knowledge of fetal diameter and measurement causes the least problems during labor and delivery through the diagnosis of abnormalities in presentation and position, also disproportion between the fetal head and the pelvis can be easily recognized.
  3. Delivery can be conducted with minimal injuries to the mother and baby.

 

Nursing Past Questions And Answers On Quality Improvement In Healthcare

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Nursing Past Questions And Answers On Quality Improvement In Healthcare
  1. The following represents an essential element to an effective quality council: A.consultation of the legal advisor.
    B.direction from the organization’s quality department.
    C.participation of the strategic planning committee.
    D.involvement of leadership.
  2. For a community hospital, patient satisfaction scores demonstrate multiple areas needed for improvement including a need to improve attractiveness of the facility, responsiveness to patient needs, and physician and nursing communication. Based on these results, which of the following would the healthcare quality professional also will be expected to find?
    A.departments are operating independently with little communication between units.
    B.administration is prioritizing and leading units to achieve organizational goals. C.departments managers are openly discuss patient satisfaction scores.
    D.employee satisfaction scores in the 90th percentile compared to other peer organizations.
  3. Dental department’s monthly case review revealed 240 records meeting criteria and 150 records did not meet the criteria. In calculating the incidence rate, the denominator is:
    A.90 B.390 C.240 D.150
  4. Research, Quality Assessment and Quality Improvement: A.use scientific methods to test hypothesis and statistical methods to analyza data.
    B.are considered protocols rather than projects.
    C.do not share the aspect of systematic investigation.
    D.do not require documentation of IRB approval before publication.
  5. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is performed:
    A.as a preventative measure before an incident occurs.
    B.to immediately investigate an incident that occurred. C.if the severity of an incident led to a patient death. D.when there is a chance of an incident reoccurring.
  6. The relationship between patient satisfaction and hours per patient day on a GOB unit was found to be (r=0.70,p < 0.05). What is the correlation between these two values?
    A.0.05 B.0.7 C.14 D.0.49
  7. When a case manager wants to demonstrate length of stay data that depicts both common cause and special cause variation, which of the following should be used?
    A.Pareto chart. B.Scatter plot. C.Shewhart chart. D.Frequency plot.
  8. In accordance with FDA Categorization for Medications Safety in Pregnancy, which statement is true?
    A.Category A drugs; no evidence of risk reported in humans so far.
    B.Category B drugs; evidence of risk is only in later trimesters in humans. C.Category C drugs; no risk to the fetus in the first trimester in humans. D.Category X drugs; risk is documented in animals but not in humans.
  9. The leader of a quality improvement team needs to deal effectively with a conflict between two units, it is best to appoint which of the following to its membership?
    A.a human resources representative.
    B.a facilitator.
    C.a risk manager.
    D.a senior safety officer.
  10. Which one piece of information is the most usefull to describe the age of population that is served in an anticoagulation monitoring service clinic?
    A.t-test.
    B.mean.
    C.standard error of the mean (SEM). D.chi square test.
  11. The primary goal of risk management is to:
    A.minimize financial loss associated with legal actions.
    B.perform Failure Mode and Effects Analyses (FMEA). C.maintain an effective and timely incident reporting system.

D.identify the high risk areas of the organization.

  1. A 67 years old diabetic patient being taught how to self-administer insulin. Which of the following is the best method to assess this patient’s understanding of the teaching?
    A.patient satisfaction survey.
    B.return demonstration.
    C.family’s ability to verbalize instructions. D.written pre- and post test.
  2. All of the following are key aspects of quality EXCEPT: A.It depends upon customer perceptions.
    B.It does not change with time.
    C.It considers customers needs.
    D.It promotes high levels of precision.
  3. Regarding Meta-analysis, all the following statements are True EXCEPT:
    A.It is a statistical procedure that integrates the results of several independent studies that considered to be combinable.
    B.It doesn’t allow a more objective appraisal of the evidence than traditional narrative reviews.
    C.It provides a more precise estimate of a treatment effect.
    D.It may be biased due to exclusion of relevant studies or inclusion of inadequate studies.
  4. The following are reasonable description of variation in process capability EXCEPT: A.Extent to which process conforms to the norm.
    B.Distance from perfection.

C.Degree of distribution about the mean.
D.Antithesis of quality.

  1. Published articles information in scientific lournals is set in the following sequence:
    A.Title, Author(s), Journal, Year, Volume, Issue, Page(s).
    B.Journal, Year, Volume, Issue, Page(s), Year, Title. C.Author(s), Title, Journal, Year, Volume, Issue, Page(s). D.Author(s), Journal, Title, Year, Volume, Issue, Page(s).
  2. Your community hospital has coordinated with local municipality authority to convert a busy intersection to a roundabout (i.e., traffic circle) to alleviate long standing condestion, but after completion it was realized that large fire trucks cannot fit through the new configuration. This is an example of:
    A.Quality assurance.
    B.Unintended consequences.
    C.Continuous quality improvement. D.System re-engineering.
  3. All of the following statement are true EXCEPT:
    B.The Institute for Healthcare Improvement is an independent, non-profit organization promoting patient safety initiatives.
    C.The National Quality Forum reviews and endorses voluntary consensus standards.
    D.The Hospital Quality Alliance develops and promotes the utilization of quality measures, such as those addressing surgical wound infections.
    A.Accreditation by the Joint Commission is mandatory for hospitals that bill Medicare for
    services.
  4. A team approach to assist in problem solving is most useful when:
    A.diverse areas of expertise are required.
    B.the organization’s goals are unclear. C.communication challenges exist.
    D.there are adequate resources within the organization.
  5. All of the following statement about variation in quality management methods are true EXCEPT:
    A.Special cause variation is best addressed at the specific source.
    B.Special cause variation is typically random in nature.
    C.Common cause variation is also known as (internal variation). D.Common cause variation is inherent to any given process.
  6. Of a quality improvement perspective, the most desirable state is when: A.Best practices have been identified.
    B.Consensus has been achieved and articulated.
    C.Clinical studies identify effective therapies.
    D.Multiple treatment options are being studied.
  7. What sampling technique involves selecting the medical record of every fifth patient undergoing Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) ?
    A.Convenience. B.Stratified. C.Simple. D.Systematic.
  8. All of the following are presently components of National Quality Measures for Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI) EXCEPT:
    A.Aspirin at arrival.
    B.Beta blocker prescribed at discharge.
    C.ACEI (Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors) or ARB (Angiotensin Receptor Blockers) for left ventricular systolic dysfunction.
    D.Long-term lipid-lowering therapy adherence.
  9. A utilization management department of a community hospital has collcted data on the length of stay and readmission rates. When compared to benchmarks, the length of stay rates are found to be higher and readmission rates are lower. Which of the following is the next step?
    A.Conduct a cost-benefit analysis.
    B.Display readmission rates with a run chart. C.Investigate the length of stay rates.
    D.Identify additional benchmarks to compare the data. 25. Meaningful quality process measures must be: A.feasible and explainable.
    B.relevant and explainable.
    C.valid and identifiable.
    D.relevant and valid.
  10. What is “iatrogenic illness” ? A.Illness of the eye.
    B.Illness caused by iatro-genetic factors.

C.Illness caused by not enough iron in the blood supply.
D.Illness caused by doctors.

  1. All of the following are essential to the implementation of an effictive quality improvement project EXCEPT:
    A.The hospital CEO and CFO.
    B.Support and resources from the senior administration.
    C.A clear charge and purpose for the group.
    D.A timeline for work completion and pre-determined reporting structure.
  2. When evaluating the components of an existing medication utilization system, priority attention should be given to those steps that:
    A.occur within the pharmacy department. B.are the least prone to variation.
    C.cannot be easily observed “down stream”. D.have highly functional checks and balances.
  3. Which one piece of information is the most useful to describe the age of the population that is served in a vaccination clinic?
    A.Pie chart.
    B.Radar chart. C.Gantt chart. D.Scatter plot.
  4. Which of the following is the most practical and mandatory element of the process of developing quality measures for use in the healthcare setting?

A.Clinical trials.
B.Evidence-based guidelines. C.Hospital/physician quality measures. D.Pay for performance.

  1. What are “psychic” externalities?
    A.External costs and benefits to society from having clairvoyants around.
    B.External costs and benefits associated with caring about other people.
    C.External costs and benefits from being at risk of catching diseases from other people. D.External costs and benefits from curing other people.
  2. In evaluating “long waiting times,” a healthcare quality professional best demonstrates components related to staffing, methods, measures, materials, and equipment utilizing a
    A.run chart. B.histogram.
    C.pie chart. D.Ishikawa diagram.
  3. Fall prevention programs should include all of the following EXCEPT: A.Assessment/reassessment criteria.
    B.An evidence-based risk assessment tool.
    C.Reimbursement criteria.
    D.Postfall assessment criteria.
  4. Two hospitals A&B has recently been merged. After 8 months it has been noted that Hospital A has successfully transitioned their staff to new organization values, while Hospital B is still struggling. Hospital A’ success can be best attributed to
    A.ensuring adoption of new values by all staff. B.support of both hospitals’ mission statements. C.acceptance of the new mission and vision statements. D.integration of technology and databases.
  5. An emergency department tracks patient’s mean waiting time from arrival to physician assessment. Data is plotted using a run chart. Which of the following shows a true statistical increase in treatment delays?
    A. 7 consecutive descending data points.
    B. 8 consecutive ascending data points.
    C. data points are close to the mean line. D. a zigzag pattern of 10 data points.
  6. The two major responsibilities of the FDA for both drugs and devices are A.quality and affordability.
    B.safety and affectiveness.
    C.availability and durability.
    D.efficacy and reliability.
  7. If you were comparing two treatments for which it is easy to arrive at evaluations of both their costs and consequences in monetary terms. Which method of economic evaluation would be best for comparing them?
    A.Cost-minimisation analysis. B.Cost-effectiveness analysis.
    C.Cost-utility analysis. D.Cost-benefit.
  8. The operations management transformation process in a hospital is primarily which of the following?
    A.locational. B.exchange. C.physiological. D.storage.
  9. This individual developed “bar chart” techniques for activity schedualing A.Elton Mayo.
    B.Adam Smith.
    C.Walter Shewhart.
    D.Henry Gantt.
  10. More complex waiting line problems can almost always be handled by:
    A.computer simulation.
    B.mathematical models. C.queuing models. D.linear programming.
  11. Which of the following is NOT associated with the Baldrige Award?

A.Primary focus is customer satisfaction and quality. B.For US firms only.
C.First awarded in 1989.
D.It serves as an inexpensive consulting service.

  1. The sequential and continual nature of the continuous improvement process is illustrated by the PDCA cycle. PDCA stands for:
    A.plan-do-check-act.
    B.produce-design-catalogue-assess. C.plan-development-check-align. D.produce-deliver-check-assure.
  2. A time sequences chart displaying plotted values of a statistic, including a center line and statistically determined control limits is a :
    A.process flow chart. B.scatter diagram. C.run chart. D.control chart.
  3. A Quality Council has created a Patient Safety Council. The council is concerned that staff may see this as another program that has been added to their busy scheduales that will eventually go away. The best way for the organization to establish patient safety as an ongoing part of the organization’s culture is to
    A.identify the patient safety goals and how they will be monitored. B.display the number of incident reports monthly with lessons learned. C.make patient safety a part of the emloyees’ job descriptions.

D.include a presentation on patient safety in employee orientation.

  1. The following is non-modifiable risk factors for coronary heart disease: A.Obesity.
    B.Smoking.
    C.Hypertension.
    D.Age.
  2. The best way to facilitate change within a healthcare organization is to A.communicate through group meetings.
    B.arrange presentations by senior leaders.
    C.communicate through group e-mail.
    D.involve the individuals directly affected by the change.
  3. Replacing retrospective review with concurrent review is an example of A.a process improvement.
    B.a paradigm shift.
    C.an impowerment process.
    D.productivity enhancement.
  4. Who is responsible for notifying Clinical Engineering of any incoming medical equipment (including loaner, demo and rental) in order to complete an acceptance inspection prior to initial use on a patient?
    A.Technical staff of Clinical Engineering. B.Purchasing Department. C.Each department receiving the equipment.
    D.Nursing Department.
  5. Four kinds of cost behaviors in cost accounting are: A.Incremental, fixed, variable, and semi-variable. B.Discretionary, fixed, variable, and semi-variable. C.Direct, indirect, fixed, and variable.
    D.Fixed, variable, semi-variable, and semi-fixed.
  6. The overall coordinator responsible for the strategic planning process is
    A.The Board of Directors.
    B.Chief Executive Officer. C.Chief Financial Officer. D.The Medical Staff.

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How To Pass Principles Of Management During Nursing Professional Exams

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How To Pass Principles Of Management During Nursing Professional Exams

Let’s quickly have an OVERVIEW ON MANAGEMENT

Going through 2017 Midwifery PAST QUESTIONS.
There are many past question which has to do expecially with Principle of management. Let’s briefly talk about it, and answer the questions on it.

What is management?

Management can be defined as a process of getting the work or the task done that is required for achieving the goals of an organisation in an efficient and effective manner.

Nursing Management

Nursing management consists of the performance of the leadership functions of governance and decision-making within organizations employing nurses. It includes processes common to all management like planning, organizing, staffing, directing and controlling.

Major Management Of A Nurse/Midwife

  1. Organising
  2. Staffing
  3. Scheduling
  4. Directing
  5. And delegation

Principles Of Management

Henry Fayol, also known as the Father of Modern Management Theory, gave a new perception on the concept of management. He introduced a general theory that can be applied to all levels of management and every department. He envisioned maximising managerial efficiency. Today, Fayol’s theory is practised by the management to organise and regulate the internal activities of an organisation.

The fourteen principles of management created by Henri Fayol are explained below.

  1. Division of Work/LABOUR

Henri believed that segregating work in the workforce amongst the workers will enhance the quality of the product. Similarly, he also concluded that the division of work improves the productivity, efficiency, accuracy and speed of the workers. This principle is appropriate for both the managerial as well as a technical work level.

2. Authority and Responsibility

These are the two key aspects of management. Authority facilitates the management to work efficiently, and responsibility makes them responsible for the work done under their guidance or leadership.

3. Discipline

Without discipline, nothing can be accomplished. It is the core value for any project or any management. Good performance and sensible interrelation make the management job easy and comprehensive. Employees’ good behaviour also helps them smoothly build and progress in their professional careers.

4. Unity of Command

This means an employee should have only one boss and follow his command. If an employee has to follow more than one boss, there begins a conflict of interest and can create confusion.

5. Unity of Direction

Whoever is engaged in the same activity should have a unified goal. This means all the people working in a company should have one goal and motive which will make the work easier and achieve the set goal easily.

6. Subordination of Individual Interest

This indicates a company should work unitedly towards the interest of a company rather than personal interest. Be subordinate to the purposes of an organisation. This refers to the whole chain of command in a company.

7. Remuneration

This plays an important role in motivating the workers of a company. Remuneration can be monetary or non-monetary. Ideally, it should be according to an individual’s efforts they have put forth.

8. Centralization

In any company, the management or any authority responsible for the decision-making process should be neutral. However, this depends on the size of an organisation. Henri Fayol stressed on the point that there should be a balance between the hierarchy and division of power.

9Scalar Chain

Fayol, on this principle, highlights that the hierarchy steps should be from the top to the lowest. This is necessary so that every employee knows their immediate senior also they should be able to contact any, if needed.

10. Order

A company should maintain a well-defined work order to have a favourable work culture. The positive atmosphere in the workplace will boost more positive productivity.

11. Equity

All employees should be treated equally and respectfully. It’s the responsibility of a manager that no employees face discrimination.

12. Stability

An employee delivers the best if they feel secure in their job. It is the duty of the management to offer job security to their employees.

13. Initiative

The management should support and encourage the employees to take initiatives in an organisation. It will help them to increase their motivation and morale.

14. Esprit de Corps

It is the responsibility of the management to motivate their employees and be supportive of each other regularly. Developing trust and mutual understanding will lead to a positive outcome and work environment.

The 14 Principles of Management serve as the pillars of any organisation as well as Midwifery profession. They are integral for prediction, planning, decision-making, process management, control and coordination in given out a quality care to client and patients.

Important Of 14 Principles Of Management To a Midwife

  • The principles of management allows THE MIDWIFE to understand how to run an organisation.
  • It also helps HER to accomplish tasks and manage situations as and when they arise in the organisation.

Leadership In Management In Nursing Profession

Both management and leadership are necessary skills, and they often overlap with one another. In most settings, the role of a manager includes both leadership and management functions. Leadership skills are needed to set the vision, and management skills are needed to implement a plan to achieve that vision. Recognizing the difference between leadership and management, however, can help individuals focus on developing their skills in both arenas. The greatest success comes when strong leadership is paired with effective management.

Types Of Leadership In Nursing Profession

There are 2 major types of leadership

  1. Formal
  2. Informal leader

As we attempt to understand what leadership is all about, it is worth noting that not all leadership is based on official position. That is, the title and official role of an individual within an organization do not always correspond to his actual leadership influence.

1. Formal Leader

Generally speaking, individuals who are assigned titles and positions of authority are expected to provide leadership. Because that leadership role is officially recognized, this is known as formal leadership. Unfortunately, there are plenty of individuals who have formal leadership positions but do not actually provide strong leadership. This is often problematic and can leave the organization lacking direction and purpose.

2. Informal Leader

However, there are also individuals who do not have official positions of leadership but who do exhibit leadership qualities and practices. They help create the company vision with innovative ideas, and they inspire and motivate their coworkers. When leadership is exhibited without an official position, it is known as informal leadership. This is a valuable trait for a midwife to have.

Fundamental Of Leadership

  1. self-awareness
  2. learning agility,
  3. influence,
  4. and communication

THE 4 E OF LEADERSHIP

Jack Welch, a legendary leader who has inspired generations of leaders to think beyond their imagination, helped develop in GE a very effective leadership assessment that is easily transferred to other industries. The assessment details the 4Es of leadership OF WHICH ARE

  1. energy
  2. energize,
  3. edge, and
  4. execution

THE 4 S OF LEADERSHIP

The 4 S rule in leadership.

  1. Simple,
  2. solution,
  3. sustainable
  4. and smile

Types Of Leadership Styles

There are majorly 4 types of leadership styles this includes

  1. Autocratic.
  2. Democratic
  3. Laissez-faire.
  4. Transformational.

Leader In Nursing

A leader is a person who aims to inspire people and motivate them towards a goal.

Let us briefly take a look at some past questions that has to do with management.

  1. A leader who does not trust self or others to make decisions but relies on the organizations rules and policies is a……………… Leader

A. Democratic
B. Laissez-faire
C. Bureaucratic
D. Autocratic

  1. The number of subordinates a superior or manager may effectively supervise or manage is referred to as

A. Span of responsibility
B. Span of control
C. Unity of direction
D. Unity of command

Midwifery Exam 2023 Past Questions And Answers

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Midwifery Exam 2023 Past Questions And Answers

 

1. The third stage of digestion begins in the 

A. Stomach b. duodenum c. mouth d. small intestine

2. The premolars of the teeth are also known as

A. Cuspids b. Bicuspids c. Tricuspids d. wisdom teeth

 

3. How many canines are in each jaw?

a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

 

4. Which of these performs both respiratory and digestive funtions?

A. Larynx b. Esophagus c. Pharynx d. Oral cavity

 

5. Anatomically, the esophagus is divided into ___ parts?

A. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

 

6. The stomach has ____ distinct sections?

A. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

 

7. The largest section of the stomach is known as 

A. Cardia b. Fundus c. Antrum d. Corpus

 

8. Meissner Plexus of nerve is found in the ____ of the stomach?

A. Peritoneum b. Muscular layer c. Submucous layer d. Mucous membrane layer

 

9. Which of these produces hyaluronic acid?

A. Chief cells b. Oxyntic cells c. Endocrine cells d. Mucous neck cells

 

10. _____ lies in the umbilical and hypogastric region of the abdominal cavity?

A. Stomach b. small intestine c. large intestine d. pancreas

 

11. Arterial blood supply to the ascending colon is by?

A. Superior gastric arteries b. Inferior gastric arteries c. Superior mesentric arteries

d. inferior mesentric arteries

12. The following are accessory organs of the GIT except?

A. Liver b. Gall bladder c. Pancreas d. Lingual gland

 

13. Examples of smaller salivary gland include?

A. Parotid b. labial c. sublingual d. submandibular

 

14. The largest gland in the human body is ?

A. Pancreas b. kidney c. spleen d. liver 

 

15. Anatomically, the liver is subdivided into ____ lobes?

A. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

 

16. Excess glucose in the body is a condition known as ?

A. Type 1 diabetes b. Type II diabetes c. Hyperglycemiad. Hyperglucoma

 

17. The pancreas is a heterocrine gland whose endocrine function is ?

A. 1% b. 25% c. 99% d. 75%

 

18. The most common cell of the islet of langerhans is ?

A. Alpha cells b. Beta cells c. Delta cells d. F cells

 

19. Insulin in the bloodstrean has a half-life span of _____minutes?

A. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

 

20. The moment food enters into the stomach, it brings about a reflex action called ?

A. Gastro-rectal reflex b. Gastro-intestinal reflex c. Gastro-iliac reflex d. Gastro-colic reflex

 

21. The exchange of gases between the alveolar sac and the blood takes place in the ?

A. Lungs b. Tissue c. Blood d. Nose

 

22. Internal respiration occurs in the ? 

A. Lungs b. Tissue c. Blood d. Nose

 

23. Which of these is NOT a function of the respiratory system ?

A. Olfaction b. Protection c. Gustation d. Voice production

 

24. An enzyme produced by the lungs ACE means ?

A. Angiotensin Conducting Enzyme b. Aldosterone Converting Enzyme 

c. Aldosterone Conducting Enzyme d. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme

 

25. Atmospheric pressure at sea level is ?

A. 360mmHg b. 520mmHg c. 180mmHg d. 760mmHg

 

26. Which of these gases is not present in the atmosphere ?

A. Oxygen b. Carbondioxide c. Nitrogen d. Hydrogen

 

27. The percentage of Oxygen in inspired air is ?

A. 78% b. 0.04% c. 4.04% d. 21%

 

28. The partial pressure of Oxygen in alveolar air is ?

A. 40mmHg b. 573mmHg c.104mmHg d. 44mmHg

 

29. CO2 is transported in Blood in all these ways except ?

A. As carbon monoxide b. Dissolved in plasma c. as HCO-3 d. binded to Haemoglobin

 

30. Which of these is NOT an organ of respiration?

A. Nose b. Oesophagus C. Trachea D. Lungs

 

31. The structure that separates the two nasal cavities is called the ___

A. Septum B. Bridge C. Cartilage D. Bone

 

32. The opening that conveys tears from the conjuctivalsac to the nose is called ?

A. Anterior nares B. Naso-lacrimal duct C. Posterior nares D. Maxillary antrum

 

33. The maximum volume of air that the lungs can accommodate is called ?

A. Inspiratory capacity B. Vital capacity C. Total lung capacity D. Residual Volume

 

34. The amount of air inspired and expired during a normal breath is ?

A. Residual volume B. Inspiratory Reserve volume C. Expiratory Reserve volume D. Tidal Volume

 

35. The structure referred to as the voice box is the ?

A. Pharynx B. Larynx C. Trachea D. Bronchus

 

36. Which of these is NOT part of the wall of a trachea?

A. Mucosa B. Arytenoids C. Submucosa D. Adventitia

 

37. The area where actual exchange of gases between the blood takes place is called ?

A. Pulmonary unit B. Bronchi C. Trachea D. Larynx

 

38. Which of these is a main muscle involved in respiration?

A. Trapezius B. Diaphragm C. Sternocleidomastoid D. Pectoralis major

 

39. Which of these is NOT a medistinal structure?

A. Heart B. Trachea C. Diaphragm D. Oesophagus

 

40. An inflammation of the Larynx due to overuse, irritation or infection is called ?

A. Pneumonia B. Bronchitis C. Tonsillitis D. Laryngitis

 

41. The amount of blood found in a 70 Kg adult is ?

A. 10litres B. 2litres C. 6litres D. 12 litres

 

42. The blood makes up about ___% of the total body weight ?

A. 10 B. 12 C. 8 D.5

 

43. All the following substances are suspended in the plasma except ?

A. Food nutrients B. Melanin C. Mineral Salts D. Gases

 

44. There are 42 litres of water in the human body. If 28litres are ICF, how many litres will be ECF?

A. 20 litres B. 14litres C. 24litres D. 10litres

 

45. Haemoglobin count in an adult male is about ____ of blood?

A. 16gm/100ml B. 20gm/100ml C. 24gm/100ml D. 28gm/100ml

 

46. The suceeding stages in the development of red blood cells is called ?

A. Erythropoiesis B. Haemocytoblast C. Diapedesis D. Phagocytosis

 

47. Which of these is NOT a granular leucocyte?

A. Neutrophil B. Eosinophil C. Basophil D. Monocyte

 

48. The blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood away from the heart are called ?

A. Veins B. Ducts C. Capillaries D. Arteries

 

49. If there is neither agglutinogen A nor B in the red blood cell of an individual, the person belongs to blood group ?

A. A   B. B   C. AB  D. O

 

50. A person with blood group A, has agglutinin __

A. A   B. B   C. A&B   D. No agglutinin

 

51. People with Agglutnin D (Rhesus +) are about ____ of the world population 

A. 50%  B. 15%  C. 85%  D. 75%

 

52. Blood group __ is a univeral donor 

A. O B. A C. B D. A&B

 

53. Which of these is NOT required for blood clotting?

A. Lymphoctye B. Prothrombin C. Fibrinogen D. Thromboplastin

 

54. The ____ is the innermost layer of the heart 

A. Serous Pericardium B. Myocardium C. EndocardiumD. Fibrous Pericardium

 

55. The wave of expansion of the arteries initiated by each ventricular contraction is called ?

A. Spam B. Pulse C. Rhythm D. Heartbeat

 

56. ____means that the heart is beating too fast

A. Fibrillation B. Bradycardia C. Tachycardia D. Diastole

 

57. Which of these is NOT a pulse point?

A. Temporal artery B. Brachial Artery C. Carotid arteryD. Iliac artery

 

58. ____is the force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels 

A. Blood pressure B. Pulse C. Tachycardia D. Fibrillation

 

59. The lymphatic nodes that filter the lymph of the arm and the breast is ?

A. Popliteal node B. Axillary node C. Iliac node D. Inguinal node

 

60. The largest lymph organ in the body is ?

A. Spleen B. Appendix C. Adenoids D. Tonsils

 

61. Which is the longest phase of cell cycle?

A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Interphase D. Cell Division

 

62. What type of feedback is involved in Thermoregulation?

A. Negative B. Positive C. None of the above D. All of the above

 

63. Band of tissue that attach bone to bone is called ?

A. Tendon B. Ligament C. Neuron D. Fiber

 

64. The removal of tissue sample from patient for diagnosis is called?

A. Autopsy B. Hematology C. Biopsy D. Histology

65. The part of the trunk immediately inferior to the neck is 

A. Abdomen B. Pelvic C. Chest D. Diaphragm 

 

66. Mesothelium is found in 

A. Serous membrane B. Pleural membrane c. Mucous membrane D. Cutaneous membrane

 

67. Bone forming cells are called 

A. Osteocytes B. fibroblast  C. Osteoblast D. Chondroblast

 

68. Which of the following is multi-nucleated 

A. Smooth muscle B. Cardiac Muscle C. Epithelial muscle D. Skeletal muscle

 

69. Body membrane do not include ?

A. Dura membrane B. Pericardia membrane C. Pleural membrane D. Cutaneous membrane

 

70. The palm faces downward when the forearm is ?

A. Supinated B. Pronated C. Flexed D. Extended

 

71. Nuclear envelope disappear at 

A. Anaphase B. Telophase C. Prophase D. Interphase

 

72. The movement of the body part towards the mid-line is 

A. Adduction B. Abduction C. Extension D. Flexion

 

73. Dense irregular elastic tissues are found in 

A. Ligaments B. Large arteries C. Adipose tissue D. Dermis 

 

74. This is not an adult connective tissue 

A. Bone B. Blood C. Wharton’s jelly D. Adipose

75. Cytokinesis begins in 

A. Anaphase B. Telophase C. Prophase D. Metaphase

 

76. Muscle tissue that is short and spindle in shape is 

A. Smooth muscle B.Cardiac muscle C. Skeletal muscle D. Tendon

 

77. D.N.A replication occur during 

A. G1 Phase B. G2 Phase C. G3Phase D. S-Phase

 

78. Cartilage that is found in the pressure regions of the body is 

A. Elastic cartilage B. Hyaline cartilage C. FibrocartilageD. Pressure cartilage

 

79. Ureter is composed of

A. Squamous epithelium B. Transitional epithelium C. Columnar epithelium 

D. Cuboidal epithelium 

 

80. In negative feedback, the mechanism that detects change in  the environment is called 

A. Control centre B. Receptor C. effectors D. Adjuster

 

81. Which of these is used for grinding?

A. Incisors B. Canine C. Premolars D. Molars 

 

82. The narrowest and collapsible part of the GIT is

A. Esophagus B. Epiglottis C. Pharynx D. Larynx

 

83. The length of the small intestine is 

a. 600-700cm B. 650-750cm C. 670-760cm D. 680-780cm

 

84. The Vermiform appendix is found below the ___ junction

A. Rectocecal B. Iliorectal C. Iliosacral D. Iliocecal

 

85. Salivary glands are secreted under the following conditions except 

A. Electrical B. Thermal C. Mechanical D. Chemical 

 

86. Which of these is a wedge-shaped organ

A. Pancreas B. Kidney C. Spleen D. Liver

 

87. The hepatic artery supplies ____percentage of blood into the liver

A. 20% B. 40% C. 60% D. 80% 

 

88. Which of these is not a bone in the upper limb

A. Humerus B. Femur C. Radius D. Carpal Bones

 

89. Abnormal posterior convex curve of the thoracic vertebra is called

A. Lordosis B. Scoliosis C. Kyphosis D. Curvosis

 

90. Stratified epithelium is found in areas of the body where the principal activity is 

A. Filtration B. Absorption C. Protection D. Secretion

 

91. The following are the protein fibers found in the connective tissues except

A. Elastic fiber B. Reticular fiber C. Collagen fiber D. Elastin fiber

 

92. The structural and functional unit of bone called the

A. Lacunae B. Lamellae C. Osteon D. Osteocyte

 

93. Skin burn that result into blister and excessive pain is 

A. First degree burn B. Full thickness burn C. Second degree burn D. Third degree burn

 

94. Nails are derivatives of 

A. Stratum basale B. Stratum spinosum C. Stratum Corneum D. Stratum Granulosum

 

95. How many organ system is in the body 

A. 10 B. 9 C. 11 D. 12

 

96. During interphase, the DNA appears as a fine network of thread called the 

A. Chromatids B. Chromosome C. Chromatin D. Centrioles

97. Which of these organelles produces large amount of Adenosine Triphosphate

A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Lysosomes C. Mitochondria D. Ribosome

 

98. The type of tissue that is found in the liver is

A. Reticular tissue B. Papillary tissue C. Elastic tissue D. Collagenous tissue

 

99. The cells and glands that carried out body responses are called

A. Receptors B. regulator C. Effectors D. Connectors

100. The following are adult connective tissue except

A. Wharton’s jelly (b) Connective tissue proper (c) Bone D. Blood

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